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Plastic Surgery Secrets Plus E-Book

Plastic Surgery Secrets Plus E-Book

Jeffrey Weinzweig

(2010)

Abstract

Plastic Surgery Secrets—the first Secrets Series® title in the PLUS format—offers an easy-to-read, information-at-your-fingertips approach to plastic and reconstructive surgery and hand surgery. Jeffrey Weinzweig has joined forces with world-renowned plastic surgeons Joseph McCarthy, Julia Terzis, Joseph Upton, Fernando Ortiz-Monasterio, and Luis Vasconez, and others to bring you the expert perspective you need to grasp the nuances of this specialty. This new edition features an additional color that highlights tables, legends, key terms, section and chapter titles, and web references. All this, along with the popular question-and answer approach and list of the "Top 100 Plastic Surgery Secrets," make it a perfect concise board review tool and a handy clinical reference.

  • Maintains the popular and trusted Secrets Series® format, using questions and short answers for effective and enjoyable learning.
  • Provides the most current overview and authoritative coverage of all topics thanks to contributions from an impressive list of over 300 experts in the field of plastic surgery and multiple related specialties.
  • Introduces the new PLUS format, with an expanded size and layout and full color for easier review, more information, and more visual elements for an overall enhanced experience.
  • Presents enhanced tables, legends, key terms, and section and chapter titles through the use of an additional color that makes finding information quick and easy.
  • Contains new full color images and illustrations to provide more detail and offer a clearer picture of what is seen in practice.

Table of Contents

Section Title Page Action Price
Front Cover Cover
Plastic SurgerySecrets iii
Copyright Page iv
Dedication v
Contents vii
Contributors xiii
Acknowledgments xxv
Foreword xxvii
Afterword xxix
Preface to the first edition xxxi
Preface to the Second Edition xxxii
Section I: Fundamental Principles of Plastic Surgery xxxiii
Chapter 1: The Principles Of Wound Healing 1
1. What events occur during each of the primary phases of wound healing? 1
2. What roles do platelet-derived growth factor and transforming growth factor beta play in wound healing? 1
3. What role do macrophages play in wound healing? 1
4. Are neutrophils essential for strengthening wounds? 1
5. How does the wound’s collagen composition compare between the early and late stages of wound healing? 1
6. When does collagen production peak in a healing wound? 1
7. During remodeling, no net increase in collagen occurs but wound tensile strength increases greatly. Why? 2
8. What is the rationale for not allowing patients with hernias to do sit-ups for 6 weeks after a herniorrhaphy? 2
9. A well-healed wound eventually reaches what percentage of prewound strength? 2
10. What is the wound healing defect in Ehlers-Danlos syndromes? 2
11. What is the mechanism of wound contraction? 2
12. By what three methods can wound healing be achieved? 2
13. What is contact inhibition and how does it relate to epithelialization? 2
14. How long should a wound be kept dry after closing a surgical incision? 2
15. Why do partial-thickness wounds reepithelialize faster than full-thickness wounds? 2
16. You are about to remove an actinic/seborrheic keratosis from a patient’s face when he asks if there will be any scarring. How do you respond? 3
17. After giving birth to her first baby, a patient asks if any treatments are available for stretch marks (striae distensae). What causes stretch marks? Are they amenable to treatment? 3
18. What techniques can be used to optimize healing of surgical wounds? 3
19. Is a wound less likely to spread if it is closed with intradermal polyglactic acid suture (Dexon, Vicryl) versus a nylon suture that is removed in 7 days? 3
20. What is the ideal dressing? 3
21. What are the benefits of occlusive dressings? 3
22. Which vitamins and minerals affect wound healing? 3
23. Are there any specific products that help accelerate wound healing? 3
24. What is the wound vacuum-assisted closure, and how does it accelerate wound healing? 3
25. You are reluctant to débride a decubitus ulcer with necrotic tissue in a chronically ill patient who has multiple medical problems and a coagulopathy. What are the alternatives to surgical débridement? 4
26. What is a chronic wound? 4
27. What factors impair wound healing? 4
28. What effect does radiation have on wound healing? 4
29. Why does edema impair wound healing? 4
30. What factors are responsible for local wound ischemia? 4
31. Is there a role for hyperbaric oxygen in wound healing? 4
32. What is the definition of wound infection? 4
33. What causes hypertrophic/keloid scars? What features distinguish them? 4
34. A patient has two burns on his chest, one of which epithelialized in 1 week, the other in 3 weeks. The second wound now has a hypertrophic scar. Why? 5
35. What treatment options are available for hypertrophic scars? 5
36. What treatment options are available for keloid scars? 5
37. What effect does aging have on wound healing? 5
38. You perform a split-thickness skin graft (12/1000ths of an inch) for burns in a young patient and in an elderly patient, using the same technique and equipment. Several weeks later the young patient is doing well, but the elderly patient has blisters fo 5
39. How does the fetal wound differ from the adult wound? 5
Bibliography 5
Chapter 2: Techniques and Geometryof Wound Repair 6
1. What are important considerations in surgical wound closure? 6
2. Why is the choice of suture material critical in the early stages of wound healing? 6
3. Which layer of a wound repair contributes the most to wound strength? 6
4. What are the basic principles of suturing skin wounds? 6
5. What are the different methods of suturing skin wounds? 6
6. What is the role of immobilization in wound healing? 7
7. How are suture materials classified? 7
8. What are the differences among the various absorbable suture materials? 7
9. What are the differences among the various nonabsorbable suture materials? 7
10. What influences the permanent appearance of suture marks? 7
11. What are Langer’s lines? 8
12. What are relaxed skin tension lines? 8
13. What is the optimal scar? 8
14. What causes “stretch” marks? 8
15. Which excisional methods can be used for removal of skin lesions? 8
16. What is the purpose of serial excisions? 8
17. What are the differences among rotation, transposition, and interpolation flaps? 8
18. What is a bilobed flap? 8
19. What is a “dog ear”? How can it be eliminated? 8
20. When should scar revision be performed? What are the goals? 9
21. What is a Z-plasty? 9
22. How is a Z-plasty designed? 9
23. Why are angle size and limb length important in performing a Z-plasty? 10
24. What is the optimal angle for Z-plasty design? 10
25. What are the indications for multiple Z-plasties? 10
26. What is a four-flap Z-plasty? 10
27. What is a double-opposing Z-plasty? 10
28. What is a W-plasty? 10
29. What is the main disadvantage of a W-plasty? 10
30. What is the V-Y advancement technique? 10
31. When is a V-Y advancement flap used? 11
32. What is a rhombic flap? 11
33. Should lesions be excised to create rhombic defects? 11
34. What is the Dufourmental flap? 11
Bibliography 12
Chapter 3: Anesthesia For plastic surgery 13
1. What is the maximal dose of lidocaine that can be safely used for local anesthesia? 13
2. Which nerves exit the skull through foramina that lie in a sagittal plane? 13
3. How can the forehead and upper eyelid be blocked to permit excision of a large lipoma? 13
4. Which nerve provides sensation to the lower eyelid and upper lip? How can it be blocked? 13
5. How can the lower lip be anesthetized to permit excision of a basal cell carcinoma? 13
6. How can the masseter muscle be relaxed in cases of trismus? 13
7. How can adequate regional anesthesia of the nose be obtained before performing a rhinoplasty? 14
8. How can a regional block of the external ear be obtained before performing an otoplasty? 14
9. Just before an augmentation mammoplasty, bilateral intercostal nerve blocks are given with 30 mL of a 1% Xylocaine solution. The patient soon appears agitated and her pulse increases. What is the most likely cause? 14
10. How long should a patient fast before surgery? 14
11. Why does skeletal muscle contract if stimulated when d-tubocurarine is used as the paralyzing agent in anesthesia? 14
12. Twenty-four hours after suction-assisted lipectomy of the abdomen and upper thighs, a patient has become confused and somewhat disoriented. She has a petechial rash over the shoulders and anterior chest. Is she possibly allergic to the pain medication? 14
13. What are the appropriate preoperative preparations and intraoperative and postoperative considerations for a patient with possible sickle cell disease who is to undergo hand surgery? 15
14. What are the anesthetic considerations for repair of a trochanteric decubitus ulcer in the lateral position? 15
15. A patient vomits and aspirates during induction of anesthesia. What is the appropriate treatment? 15
16. What preoperative instructions should be given to a 10-month-old child before cleft lip repair? 15
17. What is the critical anesthetic problem in a patient with cleft palate? How is it managed? 16
18. A 10-year-old girl is scheduled to undergo a bilateral otoplasty for prominent ears. The parents are concerned because an uncle died during anesthesia several years ago. During the course of anesthesia the patient develops tachycardia, early cyanosis, a 16
19. Why is sodium bicarbonate sometimes added to local anesthesia? 16
20. A patient with 25% total body surface area burn is taken to the operating room for tangential excision and grafting of burn wounds 2 weeks after injury. During induction of anesthesia, succinylcholine is given as a muscle relaxant. The patient begins to 17
21. During tangential excision of a 30% full-thickness burn, a patient begins to become hypotensive. What are the most likely causes? 17
22. What is the maximal amount of bupivacaine (Marcaine) that can be safely added to 50 mL of 0.5% Xylocaine in an intravenous regional anesthetic for the upper extremity to prolong duration of action? 17
23. A 63-year-old man is scheduled to undergo general anesthesia for extensive resection of an oral cancer 4 months after having a myocardial infarction. Should surgery be delayed? 17
24. When is it usually considered safe to discharge a patient after outpatient surgery under general anesthesia? 17
25. Does the length of anesthesia increase the risk of complications? 18
26. If the usual “safe” dose for lidocaine administration is 7 mg/kg, how much can “safely” be given during a suction-assisted lipectomy in tumescent fluid? 18
27. Are there any dietary supplements that may interact with anesthesia? 18
28. A patient undergoes outpatient suction-assisted lipectomy of the abdomen and bilateral thighs. A volume of 3500 mL is removed. The patient calls, complaining of significant pain. What are the concerns? 18
Bibliography 18
Chapter 4: Tissue Expansion 19
1. Is controlled tissue expansion a new concept? 19
2. Where does the expanded skin come from? 19
3. What physiologic changes occur in the skin during “creep”? 19
4. What is the body’s response to the expander? 19
5. What happens to the cellular growth and mitotic index of expanded skin? 19
6. What is the effect of expansion on blood flow in the tissues over the expander? 19
7. What histologic changes occur with expansion? 20
8. Can the expander envelope rupture because of the internal expander pressure? 20
9. What limits the rate of expansion? 20
10. What expanders are available? 20
11. Does a textured surface on an expander make a difference? 20
12. What are the new osmotically active hydrogel expanders? 20
13. In breast reconstruction after mastectomy, what is the most significant advantage of self-filling osmotic tissue expanders over conventional tissue expanders? 20
14. What are the advantages of the various designs? 20
15. What are the options for port placement? 21
16. How many times can an expander be used? 21
17. What areas are especially suitable for soft tissue expansion reconstruction? 21
18. Where is it difficult or even inadvisable to use tissue expansion? 21
19. What are contraindications and relative contraindications to soft tissue expansion? 21
20. Can tissue expansion be used in reconstruction of soft tissue defects following excision of malignancy? 21
21. What factors should be considered when selecting a patient for tissue expansion? 21
22. Where should the expanders be placed? 22
23. Where do you place the incision for a tissue expander insertion? 22
24. What technical failure at the time of insertion will cause an expansion to fail? 22
25. When do you begin filling an expander? How much saline do you add each time? 22
26. When is the patient ready to return to the operating room for advancement? 22
27. How long do you keep the expander after the expansion target has been achieved? 22
28. How do you make the advancement? 22
29. What aftercare is required? 23
30. Should families and patients be trusted to do their own expansions at home? 23
31. How can you—or a child’s family—measure the intraluminal pressure of an expander during a home inflation? 23
32. What touch-up surgery may be required? 23
33. What will the future bring in the way of breast reconstruction? Will autogenous tissue reconstruction replace tissue expansion? 23
34. Is there a role for tissue expansion in treatment of abdominal wall hernias? 23
35. What are skin stretching devices? 23
36. What are the common preexpanded flap designs? 23
37. Where and when do preexpanded transposition flaps play a role? 23
38. Which patients are the candidates for pretransfer tissue expansion of free flaps? 24
39. What are the advantages of reconstruction with preexpanded free flaps? 24
40. Which free flaps have been preexpanded? 24
41. What are the disadvantages of pretransfer tissue expansion of free flaps? 24
42. What is the role of intraoperative tissue expansion? 24
43. What are the complications of tissue expansion? 24
44. What are some of the inherent advantages of tissue expansion? 25
Bibliography 25
Chapter 5: Alloplastic Implantation 26
1. What are the advantages of alloplastic materials? 26
2. How are biomedical alloplants classified? 26
3. What are properties of the “ideal” implant? 26
4. What is the goal of alloplastic implantation? 26
5. What is the Oppenheimer effect? 26
6. What are bioabsorbable plates and screws? 27
7. Which metals are suitable for implantation in plastic surgery? 27
8. What is hydroxyapatite? 27
9. How is HA used in plastic surgery? 27
10. How is synthetic HA used in plastic surgery? 28
11. Which polymer is most often used for facial augmentation? Why? 28
12. What are the physical properties of silicone? 28
13. What are the disadvantages of using silicone? 28
14. Are there alternatives to silicone gel for breast implants? 29
15. What is methylmethacrylate used for in plastic surgery? 29
16. What is cyanoacrylate? How is it used? 29
17. Which fluorocarbon polymers are used in plastic surgery? 30
18. What are osseointegrated implants? 30
19. What is AlloDerm? 30
20. Should patients with implants undergo antibiotic prophylaxis? 30
Bibliography 30
Chapter 6: The Problematic Wound 31
1. What is a problematic wound? What causes it? 31
2. What are primary, secondary, and tertiary wound closure? 31
3. What systemic problems may make a wound problematic? 31
4. What local factors may make a wound problematic? 31
5. What are the guidelines for handling ischemic wounds? 31
6. What are the guidelines for handling pressure wounds? 31
7. How are radiated wounds managed? 32
8. What about traumatic wounds? 32
9. Which irrigation fluid should be used? How much? 33
10. What about bacterial contamination? 33
11. What is quantitative microbiology? 33
12. Does quantitative microbiology make a difference? 33
13. Should quantitative microbiology be used before closing all wounds? 33
14. What is the value of antibacterial agents in problematic wounds? 34
15. My laboratory does not perform quantitative microbiology. Please comment. 35
Bibliography 35
Chapter 7: Principles and Applications ofVacuum-Assisted Closure (VAC) 36
1. What is vacuum-assisted closure (VAC)? 36
2. How is the VAC applied and managed while treating a wound? 36
3. How does the VAC work? 36
4. What have laboratory studies shown? 36
5. What are the indications for use of the VAC? 37
6. What are contraindications to VAC? 37
7.What are the complications of vacuum-assisted therapy? 38
8.What role does the VAC have in the management of chronic nonhealing wounds? 38
9. What is the role of the VAC in the management of acute wounds? 38
10.Is the VAC system efficacious in the management of wounds in children? 38
11.How is the VAC used to treat acute wounds with exposure of bone, tendon, and vital structures? 38
12.How is the VAC used to salvage exposed orthopedic hardware? 39
13.How is the VAC used to manage the open abdominal wound and abdominal compartment syndrome? 39
14. What is the role of the VAC in the management of sternal wounds? 39
15.What is the role of the VAC in extravasation injuries and toxic bites? 39
16.How does the VAC benefit patients requiring decompression fasciotomy? 40
17.What role can the VAC play in skin grafting? 40
18. How is the VAC helpful in managing wounds with artificial dermal substitutes such as Integra? 40
19. How is the VAC used in the management of acute burns? 40
20.Can the VAC be placed over a fresh wound closure or fresh flap? 40
21.Does the VAC require prolonged hospitalization and how is it used in outpatient management? 41
22.Is VAC management of a wound cost-effective? 42
Bibliography 42
Chapter 8: The Fetal Wound 43
1. What is the major phenotypic difference that distinguishes fetal from adult wound healing? 43
2. How was scarless fetal wound healing discovered? 43
3. What surgical approaches are used to access the fetus? 43
4. What potential complication is considered the major limiting factor to fetal surgery, and what is done to attempt to prevent it? 43
5. Does the process of fetal wound healing follow the same patterns as adult wound healing? 43
6. Is the ability of the fetus to heal without scar purely a function of being in the womb, bathed by amnionic fluid? 43
7. Is there a time limit to the process of fetal cutaneous wound healing? 43
8. Do all fetal cutaneous wounds heal without scar? 44
9. How do the inflammatory cell mediators differ in fetal and adult wound healing? 44
10. What effect does inflammation have on the fetal wound? 44
11. How does collagen synthesis differ within the fetal wound? 44
12. What are the differences between fetal fibroblasts and adult fibroblasts? 44
13. What is the role of the extracellular matrix in fetal wound healing? 44
14. How may HA provide the matrix signal that coordinates healing by regeneration rather than by scarring? 44
15. Do all fetal tissues heal scarlessly? 44
16. Do fetal wounds heal differently in congenital models versus surgically created models? 44
17. Does amniotic fluid play a role in wound contraction? 45
18. Is the lack of wound contracture in the fetus due to lack of myofibroblasts in the skin? 45
19. Can adult skin placed into a fetal environment heal without scar? 45
20. How do growth factor profiles differ between fetal and adult wounds? 45
21. What is the role of cyclooxygenase-2 and prostaglandin E2 in fetal wound healing? 45
22. How do the levels of the growth factors, interleukins, collagen, ECM modulators, and cell types involved in wound healing differ between fetal and adult wounds? 45
Controversies 45
23. What regulates the process of fetal wound healing? 45
24. What is the potential advantage of scarless fetal wound healing in the treatment of congenital craniofacial anomalies? 45
25. Can scarless healing after in utero repair of cleft lip and palate completely eliminate the facial growth abnormality associated with postnatal, surgically induced scar formation? 45
Bibliography 46
Chapter 9: Liability Issues in Plastic Surgery 48
1. What makes plastic surgeons such frequent targets for malpractice lawsuits? 48
2. Can you enumerate those qualities that make one doctor less prone to lawsuit than others? 48
3. Can you expound on what constitutes “competence”? 48
4. What about “communication”? That covers a lot of ground, doesn’t it? 48
5. Can you explain the rules of the game in “patient selection”? 48
6. Are there any reliable signs by which one can identify potentially problematic patients? 49
7. One hears so much about the importance of “informed consent.” What does that mean, and how different is that from plain vanilla consent? 49
8. Just how much and what sort of information is needed to fully qualify the consent as “informed”? 50
9. Can you specify how a surgeon’s personality and attitude are factors in malpractice claims? 50
10. What can be done to prevent things going from bad to worse? 50
11. If you were offering claims avoidance “pearls” to surgeons new to practice, what would they be? 53
Bibliography 53
Chapter 10: CPT Coding Strategies 54
1. What is the appropriate CPT coding for the excision of a 10-mm basal cell carcinoma of the cheek with 2-mm margins followed by a layered closure of 3cm? 54
2. Three full-thickness ragged lacerations of the face are repaired. Each requires débridement of contused tissues, undermining, and layered closure: 3cm on the nose, 2cm on the lip, and 4cm on the cheek. How is this procedure reported? 54
3. A 10-cm basal cell carcinoma of the scalp extends into the skull. The lesion is excised with 1-cm margins, and the outer table of the skull is removed. Does the malignant lesion excision code (11646) include the bone resection? 54
4. How is the removal of an injection port of a permanent expander reported? 54
5. Is “division and inset” of the flap included in the cross finger flap code? 54
6. When a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous flap is harvested, how is closure of the abdominal fascia with synthetic 55
7. When several skin lesions are removed, why does the insurance company reimburse for only one lesion and disallow the rest? 55
8. How many CPT codes are required to report the open reduction internal fixation of a comminuted malar complex fracture with reconstruction of an orbital floor blowout fracture using an implant? 55
9. Is there a code for the “separation of components” technique of abdominal wall reconstruction? 55
10. Can add-on codes ever be used alone? 55
11. When more than one muscle flap is used to close a single defect, should each muscle flap be reported separately? 55
12. What is considered global in free flap coding? 56
13. The CPT code for tissue expander placement (11960) reads “Insertion of tissue expander(s) for other than breast, including subsequent expansion.” If two expanders are placed in two different areas, should the code be reported only once? 56
14. Medicare does not reimburse for excisions of benign lesions. How does one code these procedures so that Medicare will pay? 56
15. How does one code for repeated skin grafts that are performed during the global postoperative period? 56
16. A Dupuytren’s contracture requires a fasciectomy of the palm, middle, ring, and small fingers. Y-V flaps are performed to provide extra skin length. How is this coded? 56
17. A pediatrician refers a child to the plastic surgeon with a Salter fracture of the index finger. The plastic surgeon assumes treatment that requires 3 weeks of splinting. Is this considered a consultation? 57
18. When multiple tendons are repaired in the hand, should each tendon repair be reported separately? 57
19. A 1-cm basal cell carcinoma below the eyelid margin is excised with 5-mm margins. An inferomedially based rotation flap measuring 5 × 5cm is used to reconstruct the defect. How is the proper code selected? 57
20. A sacral decubitus is débrided, including bone débridement, and the defect is reconstructed with bilateral gluteus maximus V-Y flaps. What codes are used? 57
21. If wound edges are undermined and then advanced to close a defect, is this a flap reconstruction? 57
22. In a carpal tunnel release, can incision of the fascia proximally be reported separately with 25020? 57
23. How long has CPT coding been in existence? 58
Bibliography 58
Chapter 11: Ethics in Plastic Surgery 59
1. What is ethics? 59
2. What do you mean by a “profession”? 59
3. What specifically is meant by a “practice”? 59
4. What is meant by “internal goods” or virtues? 60
5. What are the “external goods”? 60
6. What are the “rules” of ethical care? 61
7. This sounds like the Hippocratic Oath! 61
8. What is meant by “autonomy”? 61
9. How does “justice” apply to these ethical principles? 62
10. How is it determined what is ethical? Who says? 62
11. How does one apply ethical issues to practice? 63
12. What is the role of “impartiality” in the ethical process? 63
13. Is “discernment” an important component of the ethical process? 63
14. What is meant by “precedent-setting,” and what does that have to do with ethics? 63
15. How do the “three steps of ethical process” apply to providing expert testimony? 63
16. What are the three levels of professional contact? 64
17. What about human experimentation? 64
18. What is the most important ethical challenge to plastic surgeons? 64
19. Elaborate on these “ethical criteria.” 65
20. Does the use of implant materials present a special ethical situation for plastic surgeons? 65
21. Do international surgery programs that provide care in developing countries have special ethical considerations? 66
22. Where does one find ethical standards for plastic surgery? 66
23. What are the most common ethical violations? 66
24. How does one categorize the “impaired surgeon”? 66
25. What about advertising? 67
26. Are there ethical concerns for plastic surgery education? 67
27.Case analysis: A 17-year-old female requests that you implant a tennis ball in the middle of her forehead. What is your response, and what are the ethical issues? 68
28. You have said that “Ethics is like manure!” What do you mean? 68
Bibliography 68
Chapter 12: Advances in Basic Science Research 70
Distraction Osteogenesis 70
1. How is distraction osteogenesis used to generate new bone? 70
2. What are the phases of distraction osteogenesis? 70
3. What are common complications associated with craniofacial distraction osteogenesis? 70
4. Describe the mechanical forces involved in distraction osteogenesis 70
5. Can the period of latency be potentially reduced to shorten the overall course of distraction osteogenesis? 70
6. How can the period of consolidation be shortened? 70
7. How may bone morphogenetic proteins improve results of distraction osteogenesis? 71
8. Which pro-angiogenic cytokines are involved in distraction osteogenesis? 71
9. How critical is angiogenesis for successful bone formation during distraction osteogenesis? 71
Craniosynostosis 71
10. Mutations in which growth factor receptors have been implicated in several forms of syndromic craniosynostosis? 71
11. What is the role of fibroblast growth factors in cranial suture fusion? 71
12. What role does Noggin play in the maintenance of suture patency? 71
13. What is BMP-3, and how may this protein affect suture fate? 71
14. What is the role of transforming growth factor beta in cranial suture biology? 72
15. What role does the dura mater play in cranial suture biology? 72
Tissue Engineering/Regeneration 72
16. What are current techniques used to treat large bone defects, and what are their disadvantages? 72
17. What cellular options exist for cell-based approaches to tissue engineering? 72
18. Mesenchymal stem cells have the capacity to differentiate into which lineage-specific tissue types? 72
19. What are the three broad types of scaffolds used in bone tissue engineering? 72
20. Neovascularization is the process of new blood vessel formation. How does angiogenesis contribute to new blood vessel growth, and how does it differ from vasculogenesis? 72
21. Describe the steps involved in the process of angiogenesis 73
22. Describe the process of vasculogenesis 73
23. What are the cytokines that stimulate angiogenesis to occur? 73
24. Are there any cytokines that inhibit angiogenesis? 73
25. Why is the process of angiogenesis important to the field of plastic and reconstructive surgery? 73
26. How else does the decrease in angiogenesis contribute to disease pathology? 73
27. If a decrease in angiogenesis is associated with a propensity to develop these multiple disease processes, is an increase in angiogenesis always beneficial to the health of the patient? 73
28. What treatment modalities are available to treat these defects in angiogenesis? 73
29. What is therapeutic neovascularization? 73
Bibliography 74
Section II: Integument 77
Chapter 13: Malignant Melanoma 79
1. What are the essential facts about cutaneous melanoma? 79
2. What is the basis for classifying melanoma? 79
3. What are the major forms of cutaneous melanoma? 79
4. What are the general clinical features of cutaneous melanoma? 80
5. What are the general histopathologic features of cutaneous melanoma? 80
6. What are the clinical and histopathologic features of melanomas of intermittently sun-exposed skin? 84
Clinical Features 84
Histopathologic Features 84
Invasive Component in Dermis 85
7. What is the differential diagnosis of melanomas of intermittently sun-exposed skin? 85
8. What are the clinical and histopathologic features of lentigo maligna melanomas? 85
Clinical Features 86
Histopathologic Features (Figs. 13-11 and 13-12) 86
9. What is the differential diagnosis of lentigo maligna melanoma? 87
10. What are the clinical and histopathologic features of acral (and mucosal) melanomas? 87
Clinical Features 87
Histopathologic Features (Figs. 13-13 to 13-15) 88
11. What is the differential diagnosis of acral (and mucosal) melanoma? 89
12. What are the clinical and histopathologic features of nodular melanomas? 89
Clinical Features 89
Histopathologic Features (Fig. 13-16) 89
13. What is the differential diagnosis of nodular melanomas? 90
14. What are the most important unusual variants of melanoma? 90
15. What are the clinical and histopathologic features of desmoplastic neurotropic melanoma? 90
Section III: Craniofacial Surgery I-Congenital 131
Chapter 20: Principles of Craniofacial Surgery 133
1. What is the specialty of craniofacial surgery? 133
2. What three types of pathology can be treated by the craniofacial surgeon? 133
3. What are the goals of craniofacial surgery in patients with craniosynostosis or faciocraniosynostosis? 133
4. What is the incidence of craniosynostosis? 133
5. What is the pathogenesis of craniosynostosis? 133
6. How is craniosynostosis classified? 133
7. What is the main feature of faciocraniosynostosis compared with craniosynostosis? 134
8. Are all craniosynostoses or faciocraniosynostoses present at birth? 134
9. What is the main functional risk of craniosynostosis? 134
10. In acrocephalosyndactyly (such as Apert’s syndrome), which factors may be associated with a better mental outcome? 134
11. Describe the preoperative evaluation of the craniofacial patient 134
12. Which imaging studies are necessary before surgery? 134
13. What are the principles of frontoorbital remodeling in craniosynostosis? 135
14. Compare the growth of the brain and skull in the first 2 years of life 135
15. What is the main factor responsible for frontal sinus growth after frontocranial remodeling? 135
16. What complications are associated with craniofacial surgery? How can they be prevented? 135
17. Can surgery improve the mental outcome of craniosynostotic patients? 135
18. What is the most common type of craniosynostosis? 135
19. Is blood transfusion frequently required in craniofacial surgery? 135
20. What is the mortality rate in craniofacial surgery? 135
21. Is distraction always osteogenic? 135
22. What is the current safe strategy for treatment of faciocraniosynostosis? 135
23. Is frontofacial monobloc advancement a safe procedure? 136
24. Is it possible to correct an abnormally shaped skull in an adult who has not undergone surgery in childhood for craniosynostosis? 136
Bibliography 136
Chapter 21: Craniofacial Embryology 137
Facial Prominences/Branchial Arches 137
1. The face originates from how many prominences? What are they? 137
2. Which branchial arches give rise to the five facial prominences? 137
Maxillary Prominence 137
3. What structures do the maxillary prominences give rise to? 137
4. What structures give rise to the nasolacrimal duct? 137
Mandibular Prominence 137
5. What structures contribute to formation of the lower jaw? 137
6. By what type of ossification does the lower jaw form? 137
7. Does the mandible form before, during, or after development of the mandibularbranch of the trigeminal nerve? 139
Palatal Fusion 139
8. What four structures contribute to the formation of the palate? 139
9. Are the terms hard and soft palate synonymous with primary and secondary palate? 140
10. What is the mechanism underlying the formation of cleft palate? 141
11. What is a submucous cleft? 141
12. What is the etiology of cleft palate in Pierre Robin sequence? 141
Lip Fusion 141
13. What is the most common mechanism underlying cleft lip? 141
14. Is the incidence of cleft palate higher in males or females? What about cleft lip? 141
15. Are cleft lips more common than cleft palates? 141
Craniofacial Clefts 141
16. What is the most common classification system of craniofacial clefts? 141
17. Which craniofacial cleft results from failed fusion of the mandibular and maxillary prominences at the lateral commissure? 141
18. What are the midline clefts in the Tessier system, and how do they form? 142
Frontonasal Development 142
19. What structures give rise to the nasal cavity? 142
20. Do paranasal sinuses form during fetal or postnatal development? 142
Cranial Suture Development/Fusion 142
21. What is the distinction between neurocranium and viscerocranium? 142
22. By what type of ossification does the neurocranium form during development? 142
23. Will calvarial intramembranous bone formation occur in the absence of an underlying brain? 142
24. What is the clinical significance of cranial sutures during fetal and adult life? 142
25. What is posterior deformational plagiocephaly, and how does it occur? 143
26. Do the neurocranium and facial skull maintain a similar proportion duringdevelopment? 143
27. Does the relative thickness of calvarial bone change following birth? 143
Eye 143
28. What structures give rise to the eye? 143
Bibliography 143
Chapter 22: Cleft Lip 144
1. What is the cause of a cleft of the lip and palate? 144
2. What is the cause of clefting in a specific case? 144
3. What is the anatomy of a cleft? 144
Unilateral Clefts 144
4. What is the key factor involved in the treatment of a unilateral cleft? 144
5. Summarize the evolution of unilateral cleft surgery 144
6. What is the Mirault-Blair-Brown method of lip repair? 144
7. What is the Hagedorn-Le Mesurier method? 144
8. What is the Tennison-Randall method? 144
9. What is the rotation-advancement method? 144
10. What are the most common mistakes made in the rotation-advancement method? 144
11. What are the recent advances in unilateral cleft lip surgery? 146
12. At what age are the various stages of lip construction accomplished? 146
13. Why is the lip adhesion used? 146
14. What are the key deformities in the unilateral cleft lip nose? How are they corrected? 146
15. Why is the rotation-advancement lip operation the method of choice? 146
Bilateral Clefts 146
16. What are the specific deformities in a bilateral cleft? 146
17. What one aspect of the bilateral cleft is sometimes an advantage? 146
18. Summarize the evolution of bilateral cleft surgery 146
19. How is maxillary alignment maintained? 147
20. What is the major risk of early alveolar construction? 147
21. Can this risk be avoided? 147
22. What are the advantages of early orthodontic manipulation and gingivoperiosteoplasty of the alveolar cleft? 147
23. How are the soft tissues treated in bilateral clefts? 147
24. What is the key to correction of the nose? 147
25. What is the best method of action? 147
26. How is the forked flap used? 147
27. How is the lip of a bilateral cleft closed? 147
28. What is important to the future treatment of clefts? 147
Bibliography 148
Chapter 23: Cleft Palate 149
1. What is a cleft palate? 149
2. Explain the terms primary and secondary palate, and prepalatal and palatal structures 149
3. What is the premaxilla? 149
4. When is a cleft palate associated with a cleft lip? What is the overall incidence? 149
5. How can clefts be classified? 149
6. What is the etiology of cleft palate? 149
7. How does a primary or prepalatal cleft form? 150
8. Why are left-sided secondary or palatal clefts more common than right-sided clefts? 150
9. What is Simonart’s band? 150
10. Which muscles are the most important for achieving velopharyngeal closure? 150
11. Do any other muscles contribute to velopharyngeal closure? 150
12. What is the most important anatomic abnormality seen with a cleft palate? 151
13. What is an intravelar veloplasty? 151
14. What is Passavant’s ridge? 151
15. How can a mother know if her child has a cleft palate? 151
16. How should a mother feed a child with a cleft palate if the child cannot suck? 151
17. Who should evaluate a newborn with a cleft palate? 152
18. What disciplines should be available on a cleft palate team? 152
19. What are the major sequelae of an unrepaired cleft palate? 152
20. At what age should the palate be surgically repaired? 152
21. What is the benefit of earlier closure? 152
22. What is the von Langenbeck operation? 152
23. What is the Furlow double-opposing Z-plasty technique? 152
24. What is the Wardill-Kilner-Veau operation? 153
25. What is a vomer flap? 153
26. Is there an alternative to surgical repair? 153
27. What is velopharyngeal incompetence? How soon after surgery should a child be evaluated for velopharyngeal incompetence? 153
28. Who should decide to operate on an incompetent palate? 153
29. What can be done about residual speech problems after cleft palate repair? 153
30. Why do children with palatal clefts have ear problems? 154
31. What is the likelihood of a cleft in another child from the same parents? 154
32. Is there a way to decrease the incidence of clefts? 154
Bibliography 154
Chapter 24: Correction of Secondary Cleft Lip and Palate Deformities 155
1. In a newborn infant with cleft lip and palate, what are the number and the timing of surgical procedures that can be anticipated? 155
2. are the etiologies of residual lip deformities following primary cleft lip repair? 155
3. When and how should deformities of the vermilion–white roll junction be addressed? 156
4. What treatment options are available for midline vermilion deficiencies? 156
5. When should secondary cleft septorhinoplasty be performed? 156
6. What are the etiologies of palatal dysfunction following primary cleft palate repair? 156
7. What techniques are available for assessing velopharyngeal insufficiency? 157
8. What patterns of velopharyngeal closure are commonly seen in cleft palate patients with velopharyngeal insufficiency? What is the treatment of each? 157
9. What procedures are available for closure of palatal fistulae? 161
10. What special considerations must be observed in patients with velocardiofacial syndrome? 161
11. What is the purpose of alveolar cleft bone grafting? When is it performed and what donor site bone is preferred? 161
Bibliography 161
Chapter 25: Dental Basics 163
1. How are teeth identified? 163
2. How are the surfaces of the teeth described? 163
3. What is the Angle classification? 164
4. Describe the anatomy of a tooth 164
5. What are the names of the teeth? 164
6. What is the nerve supply to the teeth? 164
7. What are natal and neonatal teeth? 164
8. What is a supernumerary tooth? 165
9. What is the most common congenitally missing tooth, and what are the syndromes associated with developmentally missing teeth? 165
10. What is the difference between overbite, overjet, and anterior openbite? 165
11. What is a posterior dental crossbite? 165
12. What is an anterior dental crossbite? 166
13. What is the occlusal plane? 166
14. What is the difference between centric relation and centric occlusion? 166
15. Describe the most common injuries involving the teeth 166
16. When do the primary teeth erupt? 167
17. When do the permanent teeth erupt? 167
18. What is a mamelon? 167
19. Describe the embryology of teeth 167
20. What is the process of dental decay? 167
21. What are the muscles of mastication? 168
22. How do the muscles of mastication move the mandible? 168
23. What are the average measurements of mandibular movement in an adult? 168
24. What is a dental implant? 168
25. What is Invisalign? 168
26. What is periodontitis? 168
27. What drugs may cause gingival hyperplasia (overgrowth of gingival tissue)? 168
28. What is endodontics? 168
Bibliography 168
Chapter 26: Orthodontics for Oral Cleft Craniofacial Disorders 169
Passive Prosthetics \n(Neonatal Period) 169
1. What is a passive infant oral prosthesis? 169
2. What does the prosthesis do? 169
3. Does a prosthesis affect growth? 169
4. When is the prosthesis worn? 169
5. How long does it take before a prosthesis is outgrown? 169
6. Does extension of the prosthesis over the alveolar structures restrict normal development of the lateral dental segments? 170
Presurgical Orthopedic Correction (Neonatal Period) 170
7. What is presurgical orthopedic correction? 170
8. How does POC apply to oral cleft patients? 170
9. What problems attend oral cleft treatment without POC? 170
10. What are the benefits of POC? 170
11. What are the various techniques used in POC? 170
12. What techniques use passive retention? 170
13. How effective are passive techniques? 170
14. What techniques use pinned retention? 171
15. How effective are pinned techniques? 171
16. How is POC used in UCLP and BCLP treatment? 171
17. How does the UCLP device produce orthopedic correction? 171
18. How long does it take before a patient with UCLP is ready for reconstructive surgery? 172
19. How does the BCLP device produce orthopedic correction? 172
20. How long does it take before a patient with BCLP is ready for reconstructive surgery? 172
21. What are the significant treatment effects in BCLP? 172
22. What is the incidence of postalveolar cleft palate fistulation in patients treated withand without POC? 172
23. Do pinned POC devices stimulate maxillary growth? 172
24. Does pinned POC treatment adversely affect maxillary growth? 172
Orthodontic Management 173
Primary Dentition (Age 3 to 6 Years) 173
25. What is the primary dentition? 173
26. Why is orthodontic treatment important at this age? 173
27. What is achieved with orthodontic treatment? 173
28. What physical signs are most important? 173
29. What procedures are undertaken at this age? 173
30. What kinds of devices are used for maxillary expansion? 173
31. How long of a rest period is needed after expansion? 173
32. How much expansion is necessary? 173
33. When was maxillary expansion first used? 174
34. What other use do expansion devices have? 174
35. During primary dentition, when is the best time for maxillary protraction? 174
Mixed Dentition (Age 7 to 11 Years) 174
36. What is mixed dentition? 174
37. What are the succedaneous or successional teeth? 174
38. What are the accessional teeth? 174
39. What is achieved by orthodontic treatment of mixed dentition? 174
40. What treatment procedures are used? 174
41. Why is this period critical for the alveolar bone graft? 174
42. Why is it important to graft the alveolar defect when the canine root is less than 50% formed? 175
Adolescent and Adult Dentition (Age 12 to 17 Years and Beyond) 175
43. What is adolescent dentition? 175
44. What orthodontic appliances are used during this period? 175
Controversy 175
45. Is alveolar bone grafting a definitive procedure? 175
Facial Growth In Oral \nCleft Patients 175
46. Is craniofacial morphology of parents related to susceptibility for oral cleft in offspring? 175
47. How is the craniofacial status of adult patients with isolated unilateral cleft lip/alveolus surgically treated in childhood different from that of normal samples? 175
48. How is the craniofacial status of adult patients with isolated UCLP surgically treated in childhood different from that of normal samples? 175
49. How is the craniofacial status of adult patients with isolated BCLP surgically treated in childhood different from that of normal samples? 175
50. How is the craniofacial status of infants with isolated CP different from that of the CLA sample? 176
51. How is the craniofacial status of adult patients with isolated CP treated and untreated in childhood different from that of normal samples? 176
52. How does a pharyngeal flap affect facial development? 176
Bibliography 176
Chapter 27: Cephalometrics 177
1. What is cephalometrics? 177
2. How is cephalometric analysis performed? 177
3. How is a standard cephalogram obtained? 177
4. Why is a cephalostat used? 177
5. How do you trace a cephalogram? 177
6. What are the requirements for a landmark? 177
7. What are the most commonly used landmarks? 179
8. What is a cephalometric plane? 180
9. What are the components of cephalometric analysis? 180
10. What is the purpose of skeletal analysis? 181
11. What does the dental analysis indicate? 181
12. What does the profile analysis assess? 181
13. What is the Holdaway ratio? 182
14. What are the applications of cephalometrics? 182
15. How is the STO carried out? 182
16. How do you evaluate the effect of treatment? 182
17. Have there been any recent advancements in cephalometrics? 182
18. What is digital imaging? 182
19. What are the advantages of digital imaging? 182
20. What are the disadvantages of digital imaging? 182
21. What is computerized cephalometrics? 182
22. What is the advantage of computerized cephalometrics? 184
23. What are the disadvantages of morphing a picture? 184
24. What is cone beam CT? 184
Bibliography 184
Chapter 28: Principles of Orthognathic Surgery 185
1. What is the Angle classification? 185
2. What do the terms centric occlusion and centric relation mean? 185
3. What do the cephalometric relationships SNA, SNB, and mandibular plane angle signify? 186
4. What is the normal amount of incisor show with the lips in repose and during smiling? 186
5. Describe the classic vertical proportions of the face in profile 186
6. What is the value of a surgical splint in an orthognathic procedure? How are splints made? 186
7. What is the rationale behind orthodontic preparation prior to orthognathic surgery? 187
8. What are the most common osteotomies used to perform mandibular repositioning? 187
9. Classify chin deformities 187
10. What is the long face syndrome? Suggest a basic surgical approach 188
11. What is the short face syndrome? Suggest a basic surgical approach 188
12. Describe the vascular supply of the mobilized Le Fort I maxillary segment 188
13. What are the risks of nerve injury during orthognathic surgery? 188
14. What is the normal range of vertical mandibular opening in adults? Describe the normal motion of the TMJ 189
Controversies 189
15. Does orthognathic surgery improve TMJ symptoms? 189
16. What is progressive condylar resorption? What is its cause? How is it treated? 189
Bibliography 189
Chapter 29: Cleft Orthognathic Surgery 190
1. What are the maxillomandibular abnormalities in cleft lip and palate patients? 190
2. Do surgical procedures on the lip and palate contribute to these abnormalities? 190
3. What can we do to prevent these abnormalities? 190
4. How often is orthognathic surgery needed in cleft patients? 190
5. Is orthognathic surgery avoidable in cleft patients? 190
6. What are the most frequent orthognathic procedures performed in cleft patients? 190
7. How does one prepare a cleft patient for orthognathic surgery? 190
8. What is the optimal timing to perform orthognathic surgery in cleft patients? 191
9. What are the goals when performing a maxillary osteotomy? 191
10. What is the basic technique for a Le Fort I maxillary osteotomy? 191
11. Is the Le Fort I maxillary osteotomy technique performed differently in cleft patients? 191
12. What is the main indication for two-jaw surgery? 191
13. How do you select the optimal technique for mandibular osteotomies? 191
14. What is the aesthetic effect of mandibular retropositioning? Is it enough? 192
15. What is the indication for a maxillary segmental osteotomy? 192
16. Is velopharyngeal closure affected by a Le Fort I maxillary advancement? 193
17. Is the presence of a pharyngeal flap a limiting factor when performing a maxillary advancement? 193
18. Are the results of orthognathic surgery in cleft patients permanent? 193
19. What are the complications of orthognathic surgery in cleft patients? 193
20. How do you treat relapse of a maxillary advancement? 193
Bibliography 193
Chapter 30: Craniosynostosis 194
1. What is craniosynostosis? Who first described it? 194
2. What structure is currently believed to be the primary site of abnormality responsible for craniosynostosis? 194
3. What structure is critical to suture patency? 194
4. How are cranial bones formed? 194
5. What are the two regions of the skull? 195
6. What is the primary stimulus for growth at the cranial suture? 195
7. At what age are brain volume and cranial capacity approximately 50% that of the adult? 195
8. In which direction does cranial growth occur with relation to a synostotic suture? What is Virchow’s law? 195
9. What is the incidence of craniosynostosis? 195
10. What is syndromic craniosynostosis? How common is it? 195
11. Are growth factors involved in syndromic craniosynostosis? 195
12. What is “functional” synostosis? 195
13. What is the incidence of increased intracranial pressure with single-suture and multiple-suture involvement? 195
14. What is the pathognomonic ophthalmologic sign of increased ICP? 196
15. What does “thumb printing” or a “copper-beaten” appearance indicate? 196
16. What is the most common isolated, nonsyndromic, single-suture synostosis? 196
17. Which type of craniosynostosis is most often associated with hypotelorism? 196
18. When does the metopic suture normally fuse? 196
19. What is a “metopic notch”? 197
20. What is a “metopic groove”? 197
21. What are the different types of nonsyndromic isolated craniosynostoses? 197
22. To which multiple-suture synostoses do the terms “tower skull,” “pointed head,” and “cloverleaf skull” refer? 197
23. What characteristics differentiate Crouzon syndrome from Apert syndrome? 199
24. Name three syndromes associated with hand anomalies 199
25. What is secondary craniosynostosis? 199
26. What is “slit ventricle syndrome”? 199
27. What is “postshunt craniosynostosis”? What causes it? 200
28. How is postshunt craniosynostosis treated? 201
29. How does one differentiate between deformational and synostotic plagiocephaly? Which is more common? 201
30. Once the diagnosis of deformational plagiocephaly is made in a 2-month-old infant with a pronounced posterior head shape abnormality, what is the appropriate management? 202
31. What is the harlequin deformity? 202
32. What is torticollis? 202
33. Is there an association between deformational plagiocephaly and torticollis? 202
34. What are the two goals of surgery for patients with craniosynostosis? 202
35. What is the ideal timing for correction of craniosynostosis? 202
36. When can defects of the skull be expected to spontaneously heal? How does this affect reconstructive plans? 202
37. Which reconstructive procedures are performed before 1 year of age? Which are performed after 1 year of age? 203
38. Is a strip craniectomy sufficient treatment for sagittal synostosis? 203
39. Is the treatment strategy for sagittal synostosis different in older children? 203
40. How is metopic synostosis corrected? 203
41. What is the appropriate treatment of an infant with bilateral coronal synostosis and a moderate degree of exorbitism? Is this approach useful in an infant with syndromic synostosis (Crouzon or Apert syndrome)? 203
42. How does treatment of unilateral coronal synostosis (plagiocephaly) differ from treatment of bilateral coronal synostosis (brachycephaly)? 203
43. What is a Le Fort III advancement osteotomy? 205
44. When should a Le Fort III advancement osteotomy be performed with a simultaneous Le Fort I osteotomy or frontal bone advancement? 206
Controversies 206
45. What is a monobloc advancement? Is it safe? 206
46. Is there a role for alloplastic bone substitutes during craniosynostosis reconstruction? 206
47. Is there a role for the endoscopic approach to craniosynostosis reconstruction? 206
Bibliography 209
Chapter 31: Principles of Distraction Osteogenesis 210
1. What is distraction osteogenesis? 210
2. How long has the concept of skeletal molding been in use? 210
3. Who performed the first distraction? 210
4. What are the phases of distraction? 210
5. What are the four zones of tissue generation in the intercalary gap? 210
6. What are the three types of distraction? 210
7. Can distraction be performed without an osteotomy? 211
8. What is distraction histogenesis? 211
9. What is “molding of the generate”? 212
10. What is tensile stress? Tensile strain? Young’s modulus of elasticity? 212
11. What is the range of nominal strain in the mandibular distraction gap? 212
12. What is mechanical transduction? What are the mechanicobiologic principles thought to guide mesenchymal tissue differentiation? 212
13. What is the theoretical mechanism for new bone formation? 212
14. What are the molecular signals that play a role in distraction osteogenesis? 212
15. What are the two basic types of distraction devices? 213
16. What are the advantages of distraction osteogenesis compared with traditional surgical movements of the craniofacial skeleton? 213
17. What are the disadvantages of craniofacial distraction? 213
18. Are there age limits on distraction? 213
19. Can irradiated bone be distracted? 213
20. Can craniofacial distraction treat obstructive sleep apnea? 213
21. When would you perform mandibular distraction? 214
22. When would you perform alveolar ridge distraction? 214
23. When would you perform maxillary distraction? 214
24. When would you perform midface distraction? 214
25. When would you perform frontoparietal (monobloc) distraction? 214
26. What are the critical factors for successful distraction? 214
27. What is the optimal latency? 215
28. What is the optimal activation rate of distraction osteogenesis? 215
29. How do you determine when the activation phase is complete? 215
30. What is the optimal length of consolidation? How do you determine when consolidation is complete? 215
31. How does distraction fail? 215
32. What are the most common complications following distraction osteogenesis? 216
Bibliography 216
Chapter 32: Distraction Osteogenesis of the Mandible 217
1. What are the causes of a hypoplastic mandible? 217
2. What is Pierre Robin sequence? 217
3. What is craniofacial microsomia? 217
4. What are the differences in the mandibles in patients with Robin sequence and those with craniofacial microsomia? 217
5. What is the Pruzansky classification of mandibular deformities? 217
6. What are the indications for mandibular distraction? 217
7. Can mandibular distraction treat obstructive sleep apnea? Can mandibular distraction prevent tracheostomy or allow for removal of an existing tracheostomy? 218
8. How do you assess the mandibular deformity preoperatively? 218
9. What is the preoperative workup for a patient undergoing mandibular distraction? 218
10. Which areas of the mandible can be distracted? 219
11. How do you decide when to distract the neonate or infant with mandibular deficiency and respiratory insufficiency or sleep apnea? 219
12. What are the options when a Pruzansky III mandible is present? What if the tooth follicle is in the way? 219
13. What are the vectors of distraction? 219
14. How do you choose from among an extraoral, intraoral, or semi-buried approach? 219
15. What is the utility of a multiplanar device? 219
16. When is transport distraction helpful for mandibular deformities? 220
17. Does skeletal elongation with distraction osteogenesis have an impact on the associated soft tissue? 222
18. Which incisions can be used? 222
19. What orthodontic measures can be practiced during activation and consolidation to achieve the optimal occlusion? 222
20. How is the progress of mandibular distraction monitored clinically and radiographically? 222
21. What are the endpoints of unilateral distraction? 222
22. What are the endpoints of bilateral distraction? 222
23. When do you remove the distraction device? 222
24. What are the most common complications following mandibular distraction? How are they treated? 222
25. Is the distracted mandible stable? Does the distracted mandible grow? 223
26. Does mandibular distraction affect the TMJs? 223
Bibliography 223
Chapter 33: Distraction Osteogenesis of the Midface 224
1. What is distraction osteogenesis? 224
2. Which patients are potential candidates for maxillary distraction osteogenesis? 224
3. What are some physical deformities and functional deficits exhibited by patients with severe maxillary hypoplasia? 224
4. How does rigid external distraction work? 224
5. Is autogenous or alloplastic bone grafting or internal skeletal fixation used with the rigid external distraction device? 224
6. Why is internal fixation and autogenous bone grafting not needed? 224
7. What is the latency period for midface distraction? 224
8. What is the activation period? 224
9. What is the period of rigid retention? 225
10. How is the distraction vector determined? 226
11. What is the rate of distraction during the activation period? 226
12. What are the postoperative instructions for patients after the osteotomies and placement of the distraction device? 226
13. What is the mean horizontal maxillary advancement in patients treated with a traditional Le Fort I advancement? 226
14. What is the long term relapse in horizontal maxillary advancement in patients treated with a traditional Le Fort I advancement? 226
15. What is the complication rate of traditional Le Fort I maxillary advancement in cleft patients? 226
16. What is the mean horizontal maxillary advancement in patients undergoing rigid external distraction? 226
17. What is the mean horizontal relapse in patients undergoing rigid external distraction? 226
18. What is the complication rate in cleft patients undergoing rigid external distraction? 226
19. Where is the area of most bone formation after maxillary distraction? 226
20. What are some advantages of rigid distraction osteogenesis? 226
21. Are all surgeons currently using distraction osteogenesis to advance the maxilla in cleft patients? 226
Bibliography 227
Chapter 34: Distraction Osteogenesisof the Cranium 228
1. Briefly describe the history of craniofacial distraction osteogenesis 228
2. Is special equipment required to perform DOG? 228
3. Describe the technique for cranial DOG 228
4. What are the DOG periods? 228
5. Is there an “ideal” distraction device? 229
6. What is the distraction vector? Why is it important? 229
7. What craniofacial disorders have been successfully treated with DOG techniques? 229
8. What are the advantages of cranial vault distraction? 230
9. What are the disadvantages of cranial vault distraction? 230
10. What is the optimal timing for cranial vault DOG? 230
11. Describe spring-mediated craniofacial distraction 230
12. What craniofacial disorders can be corrected with spring-mediated distraction? 230
13. What are important factors to take into account for spring-mediated distraction? 230
14. What is combined distraction–compression cranial vault remodeling? 230
15. What are the complications of cranial vault DOG? 231
16. What is the frequency of complications in cranial DOG? 231
17. What special considerations are needed when performing DOG for Apert syndrome? 231
18. What is the future direction for cranial DOG? 231
Bibliography 232
Chapter 35: Orbital Hypertelorism 233
1. What is orbital hypertelorism? 233
2. How do you measure IOD? 233
3. What is the significance of pseudohypertelorism? 233
4. Why is interpupillary distance not used to measure OHT? 233
5. Describe the changes that occur in IOD with age 233
6. Describe the two classifications of OHT 233
7. What causes OHT? 233
8. What is an encephalocele? 233
9. Describe the various types of encephaloceles 234
10. How does the level of the cribriform plate compare between people with OHT and those with a normal IOD? 234
11. How is OHT surgically managed? 234
12. What are “box osteotomies” of the orbit? 234
13. A “U-shaped” osteotomy is performed with which type of OHT reconstruction? 234
14. What is a facial bipartition? 234
15. What steps must be taken to preserve olfactory function during surgical correction of OHT? 234
16. What effect does the intraorbital/intranasal exoneration have on future growth of the midface? 234
17. After correction of OHT, what is done with the excess interorbital skin? 234
18. Why is proper management of the medial canthal tendon important in OHT repair? 235
19. What is the role of the lateral orbital wall in OHT repair? 235
20. What are the key steps to keep in mind during surgical planning for OHT correction? 235
21. What are the most common complications following OHT repair? 235
22. What is Cohen craniosynostosis syndrome? 235
Bibliography 235
Chapter 36: Craniofacial Syndromes 236
1. What is a syndrome? What are craniofacial syndromes? 236
2. What is the difference between malformation, deformation, and disruption? 236
3. What is craniosynostosis? Do all patients with craniosynostosis have syndromes? 236
4. How does cranial growth occur, and what are the theories regarding the etiology of sutural synostosis? 236
5. How is cranial growth affected by suture synostoses? 237
6. Which sutures are most commonly involved in craniofacial syndromes? 237
7. Why do most patients with syndromic craniosynostosis have some level of midface hypoplasia (midface underdevelopment)? 237
8. Which type of suture synostosis relates to which morphologic appearance? 237
9. List some common craniofacial syndromes and their distinguishing features, frequency, mode of inheritance, and associated genetic abnormalities 237
10. What is acrocephalosyndactyly? 237
11. What are the goals in the treatment of patients with craniofacial syndromes, and what procedures are commonly used? 237
Form 237
Function 239
12. What is normal ICP, and are craniofacial syndromes always associated with increased ICP? 240
13. Are craniofacial syndromes associated with mental retardation or learning deficiencies? 240
14. Which craniosynostosis syndromes involve the limbs? Is there a difference in themagnitude of limb involvement? 240
15. Name a few facial syndromes and their main characteristics 240
16. In patients with velocardiofacial syndrome, what presurgical consideration is important prior to treatment of velopharyngeal insufficiency? 240
17. Is Pierre Robin syndrome truly a syndrome? 240
18. Can craniofacial anomalies be treated anywhere? What is the importance of a multidisciplinary team? 240
Bibliography 241
Chapter 37: Craniofacial Clefts 242
1. When does the embryologic development of the face take place? 242
2. When does the most rapid phase of facial development occur? 242
3. Morphogenesis of the craniofacial skeleton begins with the formation of which bone? 242
4. Why do craniofacial clefts occur? 242
5. What are the two leading theories of facial cleft formation? 242
6. What is the incidence of craniofacial clefts? 242
7. Who was the first to recognize the three-dimensional complexity of craniofacial clefts? 243
8. How is the Tessier classification of craniofacial clefts structured? 243
9. Can a patient have more than one type of craniofacial cleft? What are the rules? 243
10. What is internasal dysplasia? To which Tessier cleft does this term apply? 243
11. Which craniofacial clefts begin at Cupid’s bow? 244
12. What is nasoschizis? To which clefts does this term refer? 244
13. What is an oronasoocular cleft? 244
14. What are colobomas? Where are they found in relation to the punctum in the no. 3 cleft? 245
15. Why is the no. 4 cleft also called meloschisis? 245
16. Which of the oblique facial clefts may permit orbital content prolapse into the maxillary sinus? 246
17. Which cleft represents an incomplete form of the Treacher Collins anomaly? 246
18. Which is the least rare of the craniofacial clefts? With which more familiar anomaly is it associated? 246
19. When was hemifacial microsomia first described? 246
20. What syndrome is closely related to hemifacial microsomia but has the additional features of epibulbar ocular dermoids and vertebral anomalies? 247
21. Which craniofacial cleft is often occupied by a dermatocele? 247
22. The bilateral combination of no. 6, 7, and 8 clefts represents the complete form of which syndrome? (Hint: The zygomas are absent.) 247
23. Which is the rarest of the craniofacial clefts and the first to involve the superior hemisphere of the orbit? 247
24. Which cleft is the cranial extension of the no. 4 facial cleft and is often occupied by a frontoorbital encephalocele? 247
25. Which cleft is usually found in combination with the no. 3 cleft? When is it associated with orbital hypertelorism? 247
26. Why is orbital hypertelorism usually associated with the no. 12 cleft? 247
27. Which cleft is associated with transverse widening of the cribriform plate? 248
28. “The face predicts the brain.” Explain 248
29. In addition to the no. 0 cleft, which other cleft is associated with both hypotelorism and hypertelorism? 248
30. Which structures must be considered in the reconstruction of a craniofacial cleft? 248
31. What is a no. 30 cleft? 248
Controversy 249
32. What other congenital anomalies have been associated with craniofacial clefts? 249
33. Are the location and complexity of craniofacial clefts affected in patients with concomitant limb ring constrictions? 249
34. What about an association between rare craniofacial clefts and craniosynostosis? 249
Bibliography 249
Chapter 38: Craniofacial Microsomia 251
1. What is craniofacial microsomia and how frequently does it occur? 251
2. Does craniofacial microsomia and hemifacial microsomia represent the same entity? 251
3. What are the current theories of the pathogenesis of craniofacial microsomia? 251
4. Are any genetic or familial factors believed to play a role in craniofacial microsomia? 251
5. Describe the typical clinical appearance of a patient with craniofacial microsomia 251
6. What is Goldenhar syndrome? 251
7. What is the role of prenatal ultrasound in diagnosing conditions affecting development of the first and second branchial arches? 251
8. What diagnostic tests, in addition to physical examination, are useful tools in the assessment of patients with craniofacial microsomia? 251
9. Are clinical ear findings of craniofacial microsomia associated with hearing loss? 251
10. Classify the mandibular malformations associated with craniofacial microsomia 252
11. What classification systems have been used in an attempt to encompass the range of abnormalities found in craniofacial microsomia? 252
12. What orthodontic treatment is used in patients with craniofacial microsomia? 253
13. What are the goals of surgical treatment in craniofacial microsomia? 253
14. What surgical methods are available to reconstruct the mandibular ramus and increase the size of the mandible? 253
15. What new surgical treatments are being used for type III mandibular deformities? 253
16. What structure is subject to anatomic variation in patients with craniofacial microsomia and is of special concern during mandibular surgery? 253
17. What are the indications for maxillary operation? 253
18. What are the goals of mandibular distraction? 253
19. How do you know when mandibular distraction is adequate? 253
20. What surgical methods are used for treatment of deformities of the nose and chin after completion of bony reconstruction? 253
21. What is the sequence of reconstructive surgery in children with craniofacial microsomia? 253
22. What are the methods of soft tissue deficiency treatment? 253
23. What is the most common postoperative complication after sagittal split osteotomy? 254
24. In patients with craniofacial microsomia, which cranial nerve is most frequently involved? 254
25. How does distraction osteogenesis differ from sagittal split osteotomy for treatment of mandibular hypoplasia? 254
26. In a sagittal split osteotomy of the mandible, the neurovascular bundle should remain in which of the following segments of the mandible? 254
27. What is the optimal daily rate of distraction? 254
Bibliography 254
Chapter 39: Skull Base Surgery 255
1. What are the anatomic divisions of the cranial base? 255
2. List the foramina found in each segment of the cranial base and their contents 255
3. What tumors (malignant and benign) are commonly found in the cranial base? 255
4. What are the common clinical findings associated with tumors of the skull base? 256
5. How has the development of transfacial approaches to the cranial base enabled more successful skull base surgery? 256
6. What are the advantages of transfacial approaches? 257
7. What are the disadvantages of transfacial approaches? 257
8. Why is the team approach important in conducting cranial base surgery? 257
9. What diagnostic tests are most commonly used in the diagnosis of skull base tumors? 257
10. What is the role of tumor biopsy in diagnosing lesions of the skull base? 257
11. How do you prepare a patient for cranial base surgery? 257
12. What transfacial surgical approach is used to access tumors of the anterior cranial fossa and tumors that extend into the superior orbital region? 257
13. What are the variations of the transfrontal approach, and what are indications for their use? 257
14. What transfacial surgical approach is used to expose the anterior cranial fossa, nasopharynx, clivus, orbit, and tumors that grow anteriorly? 258
15. What are the variations of the transfrontal nasal approach and indications for their use? 258
16. What transfacial surgical approach is used for resection of large anterior cranial fossa or nasopharyngeal lesions and clival lesions with anterior extension? 258
17. What are the variations of the transfrontal nasal-orbital approach and indications for their use? 258
18. What transfacial surgical approach is used for wide exposure of the entire midline skull base region and large nasopharyngeal and clival lesions that extend in all four directions? 259
19. What are the variations of the transnasomaxillary approach and indications for their use? 259
20. What transfacial surgical approach is used for small clival lesions with superior, posterior, and inferior extensions, and small to moderate nasopharyngeal lesions? 259
21. What are the variations of the transmaxillary approach, and what are the indications for their use? 260
22. What transfacial surgical approach is used to expose the lower clival and upper cervical region for resection of small tumors? 260
23. What are the variations of the transpalatal approach and indications for their use? 260
24. What are the important aspects of closure and reconstruction of the cranial base? 261
25. What are the options for flap reconstruction? 261
26. What are the indications for use of free flaps in skull base reconstruction? 263
27. What is the postoperative management protocol for a patient who has undergone skull base surgery? 263
28. What complications may occur after skull base surgery? 263
29. What improvements in survival rates after skull base surgery have been seen over the past 4 decades? 265
Bibliography 265
Chapter 40: Conjoined Twins 266
1. What is the incidence of conjoined twins? 266
2. What are the types of conjoined twins? 266
3. What are the relative percentages of each type of conjoined twin? 266
4. What percentage of conjoined twins are the same sex? 266
5. What are the embryologic issues that lead to the formation of conjoined twins? 266
6. How did conjoined twins become known as “Siamese twins”? 266
7. Who were some of the historically noted conjoined twins? 268
8. What were some of the historical separations? 268
9. If not separated, why does the surviving twin die soon after the first dies? 269
10. What is the plastic surgical technique that has allowed the most reliable separation and reconstruction of conjoined twins? 269
11. Why is ethics concerning the possible separation of conjoined twins a particularly difficult issue? 269
Bibliography 269
Section IV: Craniofacial Surgery II-Traumatic 271
Chapter 41: Assessment and Management of Facial Injuries 273
1. What are life-threatening facial injuries? 273
2. The presence of fat in a periorbital laceration should mandate what examination? 273
3. The presence of a Marcus Gunn pupil implies what cranial nerve injury? 273
4. The presence of nasal bleeding implies fracture of what craniofacial structure? 273
5. Numbness in the infraorbital division of the trigeminal nerve is consistent with what fracture? 273
6. The presence of cyanosis, drooling, and hoarseness implies damage to what structures and the necessity for operative intervention in what area? 274
7. Cervical spine fractures accompany what maxillofacial injury? 274
8. Which maxillofacial fractures are more difficult to localize in computed tomographic scans? 274
9. Panorex examination of the mandible is likely to miss fractures in what mandibular region? 274
10. Split palate and alveolar fractures have what symptoms in contrast with a Le Fort fracture? 274
11. Which nasoethmoidal fractures do not display telecanthus? 274
12. Cerebrospinal fluid fistulas can be detected by what examinations? 275
13. Subcondylar fractures of the mandible generally present with what occlusal disturbance? 275
14. Untreated Le Fort II and III fractures generally present with what changes in facial structure and occlusion? 275
15. Incomplete or greenstick Le Fort fractures present with what symptoms and are characteristically found at what level? 275
16. The presence of an anterior cranial fossa fracture is suspected by what clinical signs? 275
17. What is the difference between enophthalmos and ocular dystopia? 275
18. How are injuries of the parotid duct detected? 275
19. Blunt craniofacial injuries accompanied by facial nerve palsy are generally due to fracture of what bone structure? 276
20. Subluxation of the condylar head anterior to the glenoid fossa produces what symptom? 276
21. Transection of the lacrimal system is suggested by what physical signs? 276
22. Facial lacerations rarely require débridement because the blood supply is good and the tissue will usually heal. True or false? 276
23. Three-dimensional CT scans are indicated in what kind of fracture evaluation? 276
24. What potentially lethal facial fracture emergency is commonly overlooked? 276
25. What disastrous complications result from instrumentation or unrecognized fractures of the anterior cranial fossa? 276
26. Numbness of the lower lip usually accompanies what type of mandibular fracture? 276
27. Acutely, orbital floor fractures present with what symptoms? What criteria should be used to establish the need for operative reduction? 277
28. A young boy is watching a football game in a grandstand when he is pushed forward and falls several rows, breaking his nose. He is bleeding profusely from his nose, says he blacked out for a brief period, and has pain when he turns his head side to side 277
29. In secondary facial reconstruction, is one most likely to have difficulty with bone repositioning, soft tissue repositioning, or retained plates? 277
30. Following bone grafting, what “take” of a bone graft is generally expected? 277
31. What is the most frequent reason for failure of alloplastic cranioplasty in the skull? 277
32. What is the best material for frontal sinus obliteration? 277
33. Osteomyelitis is common after frontal sinus repair. True or false? 277
34. Supraorbital fractures usually displace the eye in which direction? 277
35. In many nasoethmoidal fractures, the medial canthal ligament may be left attached to what structure during reduction? 278
36. A Stranc plane II nasal fracture would be expected to require what type of reconstruction? 278
37. The majority of zygomatic fractures require what type of surgical approach? 278
38. In a patient with 6 mm of enophthalmos, 20/20 vision, and diplopia looking upward, will correction of the enophthalmos correct the diplopia? 278
39. A Le Fort fracture doesn’t exist if the maxilla is not mobile. True or false? 278
40. Rigid fixation of a Le Fort fracture allows the patient to return to a regular diet following the operation. The rigid fixation makes it unnecessary to observe the occlusion. True or false? 278
41. How should split palate fractures be treated? 278
42. In a subcondylar mandibular fracture that has healed following closed reduction with a shortened ramus height but has good condylar motion, how should a premature contact in the molar dentition and an anterior openbite be managed? 279
43. What is the optimal treatment of a comminuted parasymphysis fracture? 279
44. In a close-range, self-inflicted shotgun wound of the central midface and mandible, what is the most appropriate approach to managing the resultant complex injuries? 279
Bibliography 279
Chapter 42: Radiologic Examination of the Craniofacial Skeleton 280
1. When should x-rays be obtained for patients with suspected nasal fractures? 280
2. What is the best way to evaluate the orbit for potential fractures? 280
3. Is there a role for plain x-rays in facial trauma? 280
4. What is the best way to diagnose single sutural craniosynostosis? 280
5. What is the best examination to evaluate a child with positional plagiocephaly? 281
6. What is the best way to determine ideal cranial bone graft harvest sites? 281
7. In determining increased intracranial pressure, how reliable is a copper-beaten skull appearance, or Lückenschädel? 282
8. For infants and children with one of the craniofacial dysostoses (e.g., Apert syndrome, Crouzon syndrome, Pfeiffer syndrome), what radiologic studies need to be performed? 282
9. Are there any risks of performing a CT scan in infants and small children? 282
10. Aside from CT scans, are there any other ways to assess sutural patency? 282
11. What studies need to be obtained prior to orthognathic surgery? 282
12. it necessary to obtain an x-ray prior to performing a genioplasty? 283
Bibliography 283
Chapter 43: Pediatric Facial Fractures 284
1. What is the most common type of pediatric facial fracture? 284
2. What are the growth patterns of the pediatric craniofacial skeleton? 284
3. Where are the growth centers of the pediatric craniofacial skeleton? 284
4. What is the sequence of frontal and maxillary sinus pneumatization? 284
5. What is the epidemiology of pediatric facial fractures? 284
6. What are the common pediatric facial fracture patterns? 284
7. What are the advantages and disadvantages of open versus closed treatment of pediatric facial fractures? 284
8. Should absorbable or metallic fixation be used when treating pediatric facial fractures? 285
9. How do you diagnose pediatric facial fractures? 285
10. What radiographic studies should be obtained in pediatric patients with facial fractures? 285
11. How common are pediatric frontal sinus fractures? 285
12. What is a “growing skull fracture”? 285
13. What are the principles of treating pediatric orbital fractures? 285
14. How do you treat pediatric nasal fractures? 285
15. How do you treat pediatric mandible fractures? 286
16. What are some issues surrounding maxillomandibular fixation in pediatric patients? 287
17. What pediatric facial fracture is considered a true surgical emergency? 287
18. What is the concern for associated injuries in patients with pediatric craniofacial fractures? 288
19. What are the effects of pediatric facial fractures on facial growth? 288
20. What is the follow-up for pediatric facial fracture patients? 288
Bibliography 288
Chapter 44: Fractures of the Frontal Sinus 289
1. What are the most common causes of frontal sinus injury? 289
2. How common are fractures of the lower frontal bone compared with other facial bones? 289
3. Is frontal sinus injury typically associated with other maxillofacial injuries? 289
4. Is frontal sinus injury typically associated with other bodily injuries? 289
5. Who is at a much higher risk for involvement of the frontal sinuses in craniofacial fractures: children or adults? 289
6. What are the initial signs of frontal sinus fracture? 289
7. What radiographic modality best detects and delineates the presence and extent of frontal sinus fractures? 289
8. What are the anatomic boundaries of the frontal sinus? 290
9. What are the foramina of Breschet? 290
10. What complications are associated with frontal sinus fractures? What causes them? 290
11. What is the function of the frontal sinuses? 290
12. Are frontal sinus fractures a surgical emergency? 290
13. How can frontal sinus fractures be classified? 290
Controversies 292
14. What are the indications for surgery? 292
15. What are the surgical approaches to exploration and repair of frontal sinus fractures? 292
16. How does frontonasal duct injury impact the surgical treatment? 292
17. What are the indications for cranialization? 292
Bibliography 292
Chapter 45: Fractures of the Nose 293
1. The nose is composed of which five bones? 293
2. What are the cartilaginous structures of the nose? 293
3. Which structures contribute to the internal nasal valve? 293
4. Numbness of the nasal tip after trauma results from injury to which nerve? 293
5. Where do nasal bones most commonly fracture? 294
6. What is the role of radiographs in the diagnosis and treatment of nasal fractures? 294
7. What is the rhinion, and what is its role in nasal fractures? 294
8. A patient with severe nasal trauma resulting in comminution of the entire bony skeleton underwent repair 4 days after injury. He now complains of epiphora. What has caused this? 294
9. How is the medial interorbital distance affected by nasal fractures? 294
10. Why is it critical to perform an intranasal examination for patients with nasal trauma? 294
11. How are septal hematomas treated acutely? 294
12. What is the incidence of septal fracture in simple nasal bone fractures? 294
13. What is the management of nasal fractures? 294
14. What is the treatment of severely comminuted nasal fractures? 295
15. What is the ideal timing of closed reduction in adult and pediatric patients? 295
16. What are the indications for septoplasty at the time of closed reduction? 295
17. Can a septoplasty be performed in the pediatric patient as either early or late treatment of nasal septal fractures? 295
18. What is the cause of the saddle nose deformity? 295
19. What is the incidence of posttraumatic nasal deformity? 295
20. What are late complications of nasal fractures? 295
21. When is secondary treatment of nasal fractures indicated? 296
Bibliography 296
Chapter 46: Fractures of the Orbit 297
Anatomy 297
1. The orbit is composed of how many bones? 297
2. The orbital rims are composed of which bones? 297
3. The orbital walls are composed of which bones? 297
4. Which is the only bone that exists entirely within the orbital confines? 297
5. What is the relationship between the anterior cranial fossa and the orbit? 298
6. Which nerve traverses the floor of the orbit? 298
7. The orbit is best described by which geometric shape? 298
8. Through which bone do all neurovascular structures pass into the orbit? 298
9. How deep is the orbit? 298
10. Where is the optic foramen located? What about the optic canal? 298
11. Where is the superior orbital fissure located? Which structures pass through it? 298
12. Nothing passes through the inferior orbital fissure. True or false? 298
13. What is Tenon’s capsule? 298
14. What is the annulus of Zinn? 298
15. What are the functions of the extraocular muscles? 299
16. Why is the medial canthal tendon so important? 299
17. Distinguish between intraconal and extraconal fat. Which is important for globe support? 299
Pathology 299
18. What is the most common orbital fracture? 299
19. What is the most common site of an isolated intraorbital fracture? 299
20. What is a “blowout” fracture? What is the responsible mechanism? 300
21. What is the difference between pure and impure blowout fractures? 300
22. What key findings should be sought on physical examination in a patient with a suspected orbital fracture? 300
23. What physical findings suggest an orbital fracture? 300
24. Hypoesthesia or anesthesia in the distribution of which nerve is seen in 90% to 95% of orbital floor fractures? 301
25. How can entrapment of orbital contents be diagnosed? 301
26. What is a Marcus Gunn pupil? 301
27. What is the superior orbital fissure syndrome? 301
28. What is the orbital apex syndrome? 301
29. What is the best radiographic study for diagnosis of an orbital fracture? 301
30. What are the goals of surgical treatment of orbital fractures? 301
31. What are the principles of orbital fracture management? 301
32. What materials are used to reconstruct the orbital floor? 302
33. What are the most frequent sequelae of inadequately treated fractures of the orbital floor? 302
34. What is the principal mechanism responsible for posttraumatic enophthalmos? 302
35. What is diplopia? Is it always an indication for surgery? 302
36. What are the major surgical indications for orbital fracture repair? 302
37. What complications are associated with fractures of the orbital roof? 302
38. Which fracture may result in an antimongoloid slant of the palpebral fissure? Why? 302
39. What incisions are used to approach the orbit? 302
40. Which incision has the greatest propensity for complications such as scleral show or ectropion? 303
41. Is the Caldwell-Luc approach to the orbital floor a wise one? 304
42. What is an NOE fracture? 304
43. What classic clinical findings are associated with an NOE fracture? 304
44. How can the intercanthal distance be preserved after an NOE fracture? 304
45. What is the surgical approach to treatment of an NOE fracture? 304
Bibliography 305
Chapter 47: Fractures of the Zygoma 306
1. Describe the anatomy of the zygoma 306
2. What different terms have been used to describe fractures of the zygoma? 306
3. What is the pattern of the typical zygoma fracture? 306
4. Why is the commonly used term tripod fracture a misnomer for zygomatic complex fractures? 306
5. Which muscles attach to the zygoma? 307
6. What are the signs and symptoms of zygomatic fractures? 307
7. What is the mechanism of trismus caused by fracture of the zygoma? 307
8. Which diagnostic images provide the most information in evaluating and formulating a treatment plan for zygomatic fractures? 307
9. How many points must be evaluated by a surgeon when evaluating a fracture of the zygoma? 308
10. What are the surgical principles for reconstruction of zygomatic fractures? 308
11. When is the optimal time to operate on zygomatic fractures? 309
12. Name the four points at which the zygoma can be fixated 309
13. Which anatomic structure is most useful when assessing whether the zygomatic complex is appropriately reduced? 309
14. How are isolated, displaced zygomatic arch fractures treated? 310
15. Describe the temporal (Gillies) approach to the zygomatic arch 310
16. Name the three standard approaches to the infraorbital rim and orbital floor 310
17. What are the common approaches to the lateral orbital rim? 310
18. How is access obtained for manipulation and reduction of the ZM buttress? 310
19. What are the advantages of the coronal incision for reduction of zygomatic fractures? 310
20. Describe the approach to the zygomatic arch from a coronal incision 310
21. Summarize the commonly used incisions for surgical exposure 312
22. A patient appears to have an increase in facial width after complex facial injuries requiring plating of the zygomatic arch. What went wrong? 312
23. What is the dreaded OIF? 312
24. What is the most feared complication after surgical treatment of the zygoma fractures? 312
25. How is malunion of the zygoma treated? 312
26. What are the common late sequelae of inadequate fracture reduction? 312
27. A patient demonstrates facial asymmetry and an inferiorly displaced malar mound on the affected side despite anatomic reduction of a zygoma fracture. What was forgotten? 312
28. During reconstruction of a comminuted ZMC fracture, three-point fixation was established and the soft tissues were resuspended. However, the patient continues to have facial asymmetry. What fracture could have been missed? 312
Bibliography 313
Chapter 48: Fractures of The Maxilla 314
1. What are the buttresses of the maxilla? 314
2. At what age does the maxillary sinus become mature? 314
3. Who was Le Fort? What are Le Fort fractures? 314
4. What is the difference between a Le Fort fracture and a Le Fort osteotomy? 314
5. How do you clinically diagnose a midface fracture? 315
6. What is the characteristic deformity associated with an untreated Le Fort I fracture? 315
7. What if loose teeth are associated with a maxillary fracture? 315
8. What should one do with a tooth that has been completely pulled out of its socket? 315
9. What imaging test should be obtained in patients with a suspected maxillary fracture? 315
10. What are the goals of panfacial fracture management? 315
11. What incisions are necessary for adequate fracture exposure? 315
12. What would you do if you were operating on a patient with a displaced, impacted Le Fort I fracture that could not be reduced? Why is it important to reduce it? 316
13. What is the order of fixation of multiple fractures of the mandible, maxilla, and orbit? 316
14. When should bone grafts be used in the treatment of maxillary fractures? 316
15. What are the indications for exploration and repair of orbital floor fractures? 316
16. What material should be used for reconstruction of internal defects in the orbital cavity, such as the medial orbital wall and orbital floor? 316
17. What is the preferred donor site for bone grafts for the orbit and maxilla? 316
18. When is intermaxillary fixation properly required after a maxillary fracture? 316
19. When miniplates and screws are used to obtain rigid internal fixation for maxillary and orbital fractures, should they be removed later? 316
20. What is the cause of permanent diplopia after orbitozygomatic fractures? 317
21. What are the causes of late enophthalmos? 317
22. What is the treatment of progressive loss of vision after blunt facial trauma? 317
23. What are the contraindications to immediate treatment of panfacial fractures? 317
Bibliography 317
Chapter 49: Fractures of the Mandible 318
1. What is the anatomy of the mandible? 318
2. What are the five Ps of mandible fractures? 318
3. List the clinical signs that may be associated with mandibular fractures 318
4. Why does ecchymosis occur in the floor of the mouth in mandible fractures? 319
5. What percentage of mandibular fractures are multiple? 319
6. What percentage of patients with mandibular fractures present with concomitant cervical spine injuries? 319
7. Describe the biomechanical response of the mandible to trauma 319
8. What is the concept of favorable and unfavorable fractures? 319
9. How is the interocclusal distance measured? 320
10. Why is Angle classification of malocclusion so important? 320
11. How is malocclusion classified? 320
12. Does mixed dentition play a role in mandible fractures? 320
13. How do pediatric mandibular fractures differ from adult mandibular fractures? 320
14. What is intermaxillary fixation? 320
15. What is the basic sequence of treatment in mandibular fractures? 320
16. What is the spherical sliding principle in rigid osteosynthesis of mandible fractures? 320
17. What are the concepts of “zone of compression” and “zone of tension” in the treatment of mandible fractures with internal fixation? 320
18. What is the incidence of fractures in the different areas of the adult mandible? 321
19. What complications are associated with repair of mandibular fractures? 321
20. What risk factors increase the possibility of infection with mandibular fractures? 321
21. What role does dentition play in mandibular fractures? 321
22. What treatments are ideal for symphyseal and parasymphyseal fractures? 321
23. What techniques are used for fractures of the condyles? 321
24. What muscle is primarily responsible for condylar displacement in patients with a subcondylar fracture? 321
25. What are the indications for open reduction internal fixation of condylar fractures? 322
26. How do you repair edentulous mandible fractures? 322
27. Before the application of MMF, how do you establish a patient’s pretraumatic occlusion? 322
28. What are the indications for removal of teeth involved in fracture lines in the mandible? 322
Bibliography 322
Chapter 50: Management of Panfacial Fractures 324
1. What is a panfacial fracture? 324
2. Describe the mechanisms of injury necessary to produce panfacial fractures 324
3. What are the main support structures in the facial skeleton, and how do they relate to panfacial fractures? 324
4. Discuss the types of imaging studies available for the diagnosis and treatment of panfacial fractures 324
5. What is the optimal timing for repair of panfacial fractures? 325
6. Explain the preoperative planning necessary for successful treatment of panfacial fractures 325
7. What soft tissue considerations are necessary in the management of panfacial fractures? 325
8. What sequence is used in the surgical approach to panfacial fractures? 325
9. List the types of incisions that provide access for rigid fixation in the craniofacial skeleton 326
10. What types of fixation are available for treatment of maxillofacial fractures? 326
11. Describe the types of splints that may be useful in the management of panfacial fractures 326
12. What long-term deformities are potential undesirable outcomes of panfacial fractures? 326
13. What functional problems may persist even after satisfactory treatment of panfacial fractures? 326
14. Discuss the role of tracheotomy in the management of patients with panfacial fractures 327
Bibliography 327
Chapter 51: Secondary Management OfPosttraumatic Craniofacial Deformities 328
1. What is enophthalmos? 328
2. How does posttraumatic enophthalmos occur? 328
3. What is the treatment of posttraumatic enophthalmos? 328
4. Does correction of established enophthalmos improve diplopia? 329
5. What is telecanthus? 329
6. What are the features of the secondary deformity from an untreated NOE fracture? 331
7. How do you treat the secondary deformities of a NOE fracture? 331
8. Following treatment of a NOE or medial orbital fracture, what happens to the lacrimal drainage system? 331
9. What is a growing skull fracture? 331
10. Discuss the pathophysiology of the posttraumatic temporal contour deformity 332
11. What are the possible long-term complications following a frontal sinus fracture? 332
12. What is a frontal sinus mucocele? 333
13. Classify posttraumatic cranial vault defects 333
14. Describe the management of posttraumatic cranial vault defects 333
15. What is the pathophysiology of cheek ptosis following open reduction internal fixation of orbital and midfacial fractures? 333
16. What are the late features of an untreated healed OZC fracture? 334
17. How do you treat a healed displaced OZC fracture? 334
18. In an untreated Le Fort I midface fracture, what are the biomechanical forces on the maxilla, and what type of facial deformity may exist? 334
19. What are the long-term risks of titanium fixation used in facial fracture management? 334
20. What is a saddle nose deformity, and why is it called that? 335
21. What is a posttraumatic carotid cavernous sinus fistula? 335
22. What are the clinical findings of CCF? 335
23. How common is mandibular nonunion? How is it categorized? 336
24. What is the treatment of mandibular nonunion? 336
Bibliography 337
Chapter 52: Reconstruction of ComplexCraniofacial Defects 338
1. What are the causes of complex craniofacial defects? 338
2. What is the most debilitating aspect of posttraumatic deformity? 338
3. How is diplopia evaluated? 338
4. What is the best approach to the orbit in such a situation? 338
5. What is the treatment of isolated orbital floor fracture with enophthalmos? 338
6. What is the treatment of a displaced lateral wall fragment causing enophthalmos? 338
7. What is the treatment of an acute, complex lateral inferior rim and floor fracture with severe displacement and significant comminuted bony injury? 338
8. Discuss the management of an established posttraumatic deformity of the orbitozygomatic complex with enophthalmos 338
9. What is the best method of performing a medial canthopexy? 339
10. What are the causes of posttraumatic enophthalmos with and without vertical displacement of the globe? 339
11. Discuss the treatment of posttraumatic frontal bone deformity without cerebrospinal fluid leak 339
12. What is the best method for reconstruction of the flat nose of either congenital or posttraumatic origin? 339
13. What foreign materials are useful in head and neck reconstruction and why? 339
14. Discuss the types of cranial bone grafts available for skull defect reconstruction 340
15. What are the most useful materials for skull reconstruction? 340
Cranial Bone 340
Foreign Materials 340
16. What is the treatment of a fracture of the zygomatic arch? 341
17. What is the treatment of an orbitozygomatic fracture? 341
18. What is the treatment of an orbital floor blowout fracture when isolated? In conjunction with an orbitozygomatic fracture? 341
19. Describe the treatment of a severely displaced maxillary fracture in conjunction with a nasoorbitoethmoidal fracture and a mandibular fracture 341
20. What is the sequence of treating a displaced three-level (skull, maxilla, mandible) fracture with a cerebrospinal fluid leak? 341
21. A patient presents with a full-thickness frontal bone defect following tumor resection. The skin cover is satisfactory. What is your next step in this patient’s reconstruction? 341
22. A large full-thickness scalp defect results after tumor resection or trauma, with a skull defect that requires reconstruction. How can this best be managed? 341
23. Discuss methods of filling small, medium, and large full-thickness bone defects 342
24. How should a defect of the cribriform plate area after tumor excision with direct opening into the nasal cavity be reconstructed? 342
25. What is the best reconstruction for an established posttraumatic flat nose? 342
Bibliography 342
Section V: Head and Neck Reconstruction 343
Chapter 53: Head and Neck Embryologyand Anatomy 345
1. What is a branchial arch? 345
2. Describe the derivatives of the branchial arches and pouches 345
3. A 12-year-old boy has a draining sinus at the anterior upper one-third border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the likely source? 345
4. How would you treat this patient? 345
5. A 6-month-old infant has had a mass of the nasal root since birth. On physical examination, the mass measures 1.5 cm, it is firm, noncompressible... 346
6. A young boy presents with a small mass in the midline of the neck below the hyoid bone. The mass has been present since birth. What is this finding consistent with? 346
7. Are any preoperative tests important? 346
8. From which embryologic structure does the external auditory meatus develop? 346
9. Describe the function of the facial nerve 347
10. Define the surface anatomy of the facial nerve 347
11. A patient presents with a deep facial laceration in the emergency department. Clear fluid is draining from the wound. What structure was most likely damaged? 347
12. How do you diagnose and treat this injury? 348
13. You receive another consult from the emergency room. The patient has a superficial laceration to the neck but complains of numbness of the earlobe. What is the cause? 348
14. A 50-year-old man has gustatory sweating and flushing of the right cheek after undergoing superficial parotidectomy for removal of a parotid tumor. What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms? 348
15. A 45-year-old woman develops left shoulder pain and weakness after undergoing a left neck lymph node biopsy. What is her diagnosis? 349
16. A 20-year-old man has suffered a full-thickness injury to the scalp and is bleeding profusely. What are the layers and blood supply of the scalp? 349
17. Your patient has a neoplastic lesion of the posterior third of the tongue and is experiencing ear pain. Describe the phenomenon of referred pain 349
18. List the layers of the eyelid 349
19. Which palatal muscle acts to close off the nasopharynx from the oropharynx? 350
20. Describe the nasolacrimal drainage system 350
21. What other structures empty into the nasal cavity? 350
22. After downfracture of the maxilla during a Le Fort I osteotomy, profuse bleeding is seen. What vessel is most likely responsible? 350
23. You plan a radial forearm free flap to reconstruct a floor of mouth defect for squamous cell carcinoma (SCCA). During dissection of the external carotid artery you... 350
24. What major congenital syndromes are associated with first and second branchial arch abnormalities? 350
25. Developmental embryologic clefts result as a failure of fusion between adjacent structures. Describe the processes responsible for the major facial clefts 351
26. What are the foramina of the 12 cranial nerves? 351
27. What is the motor function of the trigeminal nerve? 351
28. Describe the action of the muscles of mastication on the mandible. 351
Bibliography 352
Chapter 54: Head and Neck Cancer 353
1. A patient returns 6 years after having a resection of a T1 squamous cell carcinoma of the floor of mouth with a biopsy-proven cancer in close proximity to the lesion... 353
2. What is field cancerization? 353
3. What are the relative contraindications to resecting a head and neck cancer? 353
4. What is the appropriate evaluation of a lateral neck mass present in an adult for at least 3 weeks? 353
5. What is the classification of lymph node regions in the neck? 353
6. What are the differences among radical, modified radical, and selective neck dissections? 354
7. What are the principal indications for adjuvant postoperative external beam radiation therapy for patients with squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck? 354
8. What are the most common benign and malignant tumors of the nose and paranasal sinuses? 354
9. Where do nasal and sinus tumors originate? 356
10. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the oral tongue 356
11. What is the role of elective neck dissection in the management of patients with early (stages I and II) squamous cell carcinoma of the oral tongue? 356
12. What is the role of elective radiation therapy in oral tongue cancer? 356
13. What methods are available for assessing mandibular bony invasion with carcinomas of the oral cavity? 357
14. What surgical techniques are appropriate for management of oral cavity cancers that are adjacent to or invade the mandible? 357
15. What are the subsites of the oropharynx? 357
16. What is the role of surgery versus radiation in the treatment of early (T1 and T2) squamous cell carcinomas of the oropharynx? 357
17. How is the oropharynx accessed surgically? 357
18. What are the major differences in clinical behavior between cancers of the glottic and supraglottic larynx? 357
19. What is the role of a larynx preservation strategy using radiotherapy with or without chemotherapy in advanced laryngeal cancers? 357
20. What methods are currently available for speech rehabilitation in patients who undergo total laryngectomy? 358
21. What is the role of laser surgery in the treatment of early laryngeal cancer? 358
22. Name the most common benign and malignant tumors of the parotid gland. 358
23. What is the biopsy technique for a lesion of the parotid gland? 358
24. What are the major indications for facial nerve sacrifice during surgery for parotid gland neoplasms? 358
25. What is the appropriate initial management of patients with a thyroid nodule? 359
26. What are the major prognostic factors that predict clinical outcomes for patients with differentiated thyroid (papillary and follicular) cancers? 359
27. What is the appropriate surgical margin for resection of cutaneous melanomas in the head and neck region? 359
28. What is the role of elective neck dissection in the management of melanomas of the head and neck? 359
29. What are the indications for a selective neck dissection versus modified radical neck dissection in patients with squamous cell carcinoma? What if the tumor is papillary thyroid cancer or melanoma? 359
Bibliography 360
Chapter 55: Local Flaps of the Head and Neck 361
General Principles 361
1. What are the advantages of using local flaps in the head and neck? 361
2. Full-thickness defects up to what width can be repaired with composite grafts? 361
3. What are the major problems with the use of local flaps? 361
4. In the planning of local flaps, what are the two main vasoelastic biomechanicalproperties of the skin of which the surgeon must be aware? 361
5. Where should incision lines for local flaps and donor areas be placed? 361
6. In the design of a rotational flap the defect should be excised in what shape? 361
7. In a rotation flap, where is the line of greatest tension? 361
8. In an advancement flap, what is excessive skin at the base called? 362
9. How many potential flaps can be designed from each rhomboid defect? 362
10. What are the common angels of the rhomboid defect created for flap closure? 362
11. Large circular defects can be converted into a hexagon to facilitate closure. Howmany rhomboid flaps are available for closure of this defect? 362
12. How many rhomboid flaps are most commonly used for closure of a hexagonaldefect? 362
13. What are the angles used for a Dufourmental flap? 363
14. What are the major indications for performing a Z-plasty? 363
15. In the design of a Z-plasty, what angles yield what percent gain in length? 363
16. What is the major indication for a W-plasty? 363
17. What are the causes for local flap failure in the head and neck include? 363
18. Describe the fallacy of the length-to-width ratio in designing skin flaps in the headand neck. 363
Forehead 364
19. Much of the forehead can be anesthetized by infiltration of local agents aroundwhich nerves? 364
20. The key concept in forehead reconstruction is a firm knowledge of which structures? 364
21. Which area of the forehead has thinner and more pliable skin? 364
22. What is the motor supply to the forehead musculature? 364
23. Where are the lines of minimal tension in the forehead? 364
24. To avoid pin cushioning, how should incisions be placed? 364
25. What are the four aesthetic units of the forehead? 364
26. Which technique allows additional rotational length for flaps on the forehead and scalp? 364
27. When scalp mobility and galeal scoring are not sufficient, which technique allows forclosure of difficult defects? 364
28. How is supra eyebrow reconstruction best achieved? 364
29. How is the eyebrow best reconstructed? 364
30. Because of the limited amount of forehead skin, epidermolysis can occur. Howshould it be treated? 364
Lips 364
31. What are the major functional muscles of the lips and cheeks? 364
32. What are the reconstructive goals of the lip? 365
33. Anesthetic blockade of the lower lip can be accomplished by infiltration of anesthesiaat the mental nerve foramen located beneath the apex of which mandibular tooth? 365
34. During surgical resection and reconstruction, the vermilion–skin junction should becrossed at what angle? 365
35. In the staircase or stepladder technique for lip reconstruction, what is the measureof the horizontal component of the step excisions? 365
36. What are the indications for an Abbe flap? 365
37. How are defects of the commissure addressed? 366
38. Which flap restores lip continuity with preservation of the motor and sensoryfunction? 366
39. The Bernard operation advances full-thickness local flaps with concomitanttriangular excisions to allow proper mobilization. What does the Webstermodification of the Bernard-Burow cheiloplasty include? 366
40. What are the options for restoration of the hair-bearing skin for lip reconstruction? 366
41. In commissure reconstruction, restoration of what structure is critical? 367
Cheek 367
42. What are the aesthetic units of the cheek? 367
43. The cheek can be anesthetized by infiltration of local agents around what nerves? 367
44. What is the motor nerve supply to the muscles of the cheek? 367
45. Reconstruction over the malar eminence may impinge upon what importantstructures? 368
46. Small defects of the cheek area are best reconstructed with what type of flaps? 368
47. Defects approaching 4 ¥ 6 cm are best reconstructed with what type of flap? 368
48. Describe the submental mycocutaneous flap and blood supply. What regions of theface/neck can be reconstructed with this flap? 368
49. What are the advantages of a cervicopectoral flap? 368
Head And Neck 368
50. What are the optimal characteristics of a technique required for head and neckreconstruction? 368
51. How are defects of the head and neck classified? 368
52. Which flap, based on the superficial temporal vessels, can cover large external orintraoral defects? 369
53. The blood supply of the sternocleidomastoid myocutaneous flap is derived from whatthree sources? 369
54. Based on the transverse cervical artery, which flap can be elevated in a lateral ordescending direction? 369
55. Which versatile flap is based on the pectoral branch of the thoracoacromial artery? 369
56. What is the dominant blood supply of the latissimus dorsi muscle? 369
Bibliography 369
Chapter 56: Forehead Reconstruction 371
1. How is the forehead histologically similar to, and different from, the scalp? 371
2. What is the vascular supply of the scalp? 371
3. What is the innervation of the scalp? 371
4. What are the risks of closing forehead defects via direct approximation of the wound margins? 372
5. Describe the principles inherent to closing large forehead defects 372
6. What reconstructive options are available in the forehead? What are their relative advantages and their limitations? 372
7. What types of forehead wounds are optimal for direct closure? 372
8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of direct closure? 374
9. What are the advantages and disadvantages of closure by secondary intention? 374
10. What is the “Crane principle”? 374
11. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using local flaps in the forehead? 374
12. Which local flaps are appropriate for the forehead? 375
13. How are shutter flaps used in the forehead? 375
14. What are the advantages of skin expansion during forehead reconstruction? 375
15. What are the optimum locations for skin expander placement for forehead reconstruction? 376
16. Describe a distant flap that can be used to reconstruct the forehead 376
17. What are the advantages and disadvantages of reconstruction using microvascular composite tissue transplants? 376
18. What flaps serve as appropriate sources for microvascular composite tissue transplants to the forehead? 376
19. Describe a flap that can confer function to the forehead 377
20. What characteristics are unique to eyebrows among hair-bearing areas? 377
21. Describe the orientation of hair within the eyebrows 377
22. What are the options for total eyebrow reconstruction? 377
23. What are the advantages and disadvantages of hair plug transplants? 377
24. When are hair strip grafts useful for eyebrow reconstruction? 377
25. What technique should be used to reconstruct the complete eyebrow when the recipient bed is inhospitable to a graft? 378
Bibliography 378
Chapter 57: Nasal Reconstruction 379
1. What are the nasal subunits? Are they important in reconstruction? 379
2. What are the principles of subunit reconstruction? How are they applied? 379
3. Is the quality of nasal skin uniform over its surface? 379
4. How should a nasal defect be analyzed? What are the reconstructive implications? 380
5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of potential donor sites for skin grafting in nasal reconstruction? 380
6. What is the role of composite grafts? 380
7. How are local flaps used in nasal reconstruction? 380
8. What are the advantages of a bilobed flap? Where is it most useful? 381
9. How is the nasolabial flap used in nasal reconstruction? What is its blood supply? 381
10. What do you know about the history of nasal reconstruction? 381
11. How can forehead tissue be transferred? 381
12. Describe the blood supply to the paramedian forehead flap 382
13. Is there enough skin to make a nose from the midline forehead? Is the reach too short? How wide should the pedicle be? Should I delay the procedure for safety? 382
14. How and why are primary bone and cartilage grafts used in nasal reconstruction? 382
15. When and how should bone or cartilage grafts be used? 383
16. What donor tissues are available for nasal support? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each? 383
17. Is tissue expansion helpful? 383
18. Practically speaking, what is the most important anatomic layer in nasal reconstruction? 384
19. What are the options for nasal lining? 384
20. Is there a role for microsurgery in nasal lining reconstruction? 384
21. What are the most frequent mistakes in nasal reconstruction? 385
Bibliography 385
Chapter 58: Eyelid Reconstruction 386
1. What are the components of the posterior lamella of the upper lid? 386
2. Describe the anatomy, innervation, and function of the orbicularis oculi muscle 386
3. What is the vertical dimension of the upper and lower tarsus? 386
4. How is levator palpebrae superioris function measured? 386
5. What pathologic condition is caused by paralysis or laceration of Müller’s muscle? 387
6. What structures must be transected to explore the orbital floor through a transconjunctival approach? 387
7. What structures contribute to the lateral retinaculum? 387
8. Where does the medial canthus insert? 387
9. Which extraocular muscle originates from the anterior orbit? 387
10. What defines the supratarsal fold? 387
11. The fascial framework of the orbit is composed of what structures? 387
12. What are the most common malignant tumors of the eyelids? What is the most common location for a malignant tumor of the eyelids? 387
13. Which region of the eyelid is most likely to have a recurrent or an advanced tumor? 388
14. What factors predict postoperative dry eye syndrome? 388
15. What are the basic principles of eyelid reconstruction? 388
16. A 38-year-old woman with a malignant tumor fixed to the upper tarsus undergoes a full-thickness resection. The resultant defect measures 30% of the horizontal... 388
17. How much vertical height of upper tarsus is used in the design of a tarsoconjunctival flap for lower lid reconstruction? 388
18. Is lower lid ectropion a common complication after a Cutler-Beard flap reconstruction? 389
19. Is the contralateral eyelid a preferred site for skin graft harvest? 389
20. Describe the evaluation of lid ptosis 390
21. For most patients with lid ptosis, what is the most important factor in determining which operation to perform? 390
22. What is the underlying cause of congenital ptosis? 390
23. A patient who has lid ptosis secondary to an attenuated levator aponeurosis, 4 mm of ptosis, and a levator function of 8 mm is best treated by which ptosis procedure? 390
24. Match the following 390
25. What factors contribute to entropion? 390
26. What factors contribute to ectropion? 391
27. How does the Asian eyelid differ from the Occidental eyelid? 391
28. Describe tear secretion and the composition of tear film 391
29. What are the indications for performing dacryocystorhinostomy? 391
30. During the reduction of an avulsed medial canthal tendon, injury to the nasolacrimal duct is suspected. What is the appropriate course of action? 391
31. After selective cantholysis and medial transposition of the lid for reconstruction of a moderate upper lid defect, a patient complains of severe pain, photophobia, blurred... 391
Bibliography 391
Chapter 59: Ear Reconstruction 393
1.What are the normal size, position, protrusion, and axis of the ear? 393
2. Using Figure 59-1, name the landmarks of the external ear 393
3.What is the vascular supply of the ear? 393
4.Can an amputated ear be replanted? 393
5.Describe the nerve supply of the auricle. Why can a patient with an oropharyngeal carcinoma present with ear pain? 394
6.What is the embryologic origin of the external ear? Why is this knowledge significant in treating malignant tumors of the external ear? 394
7.What is the incidence and etiology of microtia? 394
8.What factors enter into the timing of microtia reconstruction? 394
9.In what cases and at what time is middle ear surgery indicated? 394
10.What are the basic steps in microtia reconstruction? 394
11.Which costal cartilages are harvested for construction of the framework in microtia reconstruction? 395
12.What options are available if the skin envelope is insufficient? 395
13 Discuss some of the complications of ear reconstruction. How would you remedy them? 395
14.Faced with a patient with a traumatic avulsion of the ear, you are unable to identify any uninjured vessel to perform an anastomosis. What should be done with the avulsed part? 397
15.What principles of treatment are observed for a burned ear? How are segmental defects reconstructed? 397
16.What are the three most common cancers of the auricle? 397
17.List the main causes of auricular chondritis. What is usually the causative organism in infectious cases? 397
18.What is the typical clinical presentation of post piercing suppurative chondritis of the auricle? How is it treated acutely? 397
19.Describe the appearance of a mature post chondritis deformity. What are the considerations in timing of reconstruction? 397
20.How should the reconstruction of a post chondritis auricular deformity be performed? 398
Controversy 398
Bibliography 398
Chapter 60: Lip Reconstruction 399
1.What are the key anatomic features of the lip? 399
2.What is the significance of the vermilion border? 399
3.What is Cupid’s bow? 399
4.What is the primary function of the lips? 399
5.What are the muscles of the upper and lower lips? 400
6.What is the motor and sensory innervation of the upper and lower lips? 400
7.Discuss the vascular anatomy of the lips 400
8.Are the inferior labial arteries always bilateral and constant? 400
9.Discuss the lymphatic drainage of the lips 400
10.How is an infraorbital nerve block performed? 400
11.How is a mental nerve block performed? 400
12.Is the mental nerve block sufficient for anesthesia of the chin? 400
13.Can the lip be locally infiltrated with an anesthetic agent? 400
14.What are the principles of lip reconstruction? 400
15.How should lesions near the vermilion border be managed? 400
16.Should sutures be placed directly on the mucocutaneous junction to align the vermilion border? 400
17.How much tissue loss still permits a satisfactory primary closure of the lips? 401
18.How should full-thickness lip lacerations be repaired, and what suture material can be used? 401
19.What is the distribution of lip cancers of the oral region? 401
20.Why is the lower lip a more common site for tumors than the upper lip? 401
21.What is the most common cancer of the lip? 401
22.Which benign lesion closely resembles SCC? How is it distinguished? 401
23.What is the biology of SCC? 401
24.What are the key considerations in lip reconstruction? 401
25.What is an important and common complication of lip reconstruction? 401
26.Why is the lower lip a more suitable donor for reconstruction than is the upper lip? 401
27.Do V wedge resections provide adequate margins for SCCs of the lower lip? 401
28.What options are available for repair of localized mucosal and vermilion defects? 401
29.What is a lip shave operation, and how do you reconstruct the resultant defect? 402
30.How do you reconstruct the oral commissure? 402
31.Describe the flaps commonly used for lip reconstruction 405
Bibliography 406
Chapter 61:Reconstruction of the Oral Cavity 407
1.What are the borders and contents of the oral cavity? 407
2.What are the borders and contents of the floor of the mouth? 407
3.Which risk factors are associated with oral cancer? 408
4.What are the benign and premalignant lesions of the oral cavity? 408
5.What is the distribution of oral cavity cancers by location and histologic types? 409
6.How can you predict the outcome and formulate a treatment of intraoral carcinoma? 409
7.What are the objectives of oropharyngeal reconstruction? 409
8.Squamous cell carcinoma of the tongue is most frequently located at the base. True or false? 409
9.A tumor located in the floor of the mouth will preferentially metastasize to which lymph nodes? 409
10.Describe the goals and methods for reconstruction of tongue defects. 409
11.How are palatal defects reconstructed? 409
12.What is the reconstructive strategy for floor of mouth defects? 410
13.Buccal mucosa defects should not be left to heal by secondary intention. True or false? 410
14.Periosteum is always a physiologic barrier for bone involvement in alveolar ridge malignancies. True or false? 410
15.List the reconstructive options for oral malignancies. 410
16.Are free tissue transfers always the preferred reconstructive method? 410
17.What are the reconstructive options for a composite defect that includes a missing bony segment? 410
18.What are the advantages and disadvantages of free flap applications in oral reconstruction? 411
19.Which arteries and veins in the head and neck region are preferred as recipient vessels for microvascular anastomoses? 411
20.Describe the elevation of the platysma flap and outline the indications for intraoral reconstruction. 411
21.What are the limitations of the temporalis muscle and fascia flaps for oral reconstruction? 411
22.Can the posterior auricular flap be used for tongue reconstruction? 411
23.Explain the extension arc of nasolabial musculocutaneous flaps. 411
24.Classify the lingual flaps. 411
25.What is the role of palatal flaps in oral reconstruction? 412
26.What are the drawbacks of the forehead flap? 412
27.When should the latissimus dorsi muscle and musculocutaneous flaps be used? 412
28.What are the limitations of the pectoralis major muscle and musculocutaneous flaps? 412
29.Can the sternocleidomastoid musculocutaneous flap be raised over an inferior pedicle? 412
30. Describe the variants of the trapezius muscle and musculocutaneous flaps for intraoral reconstruction 412
31.What is the first-line choice in free flap reconstruction for tongue and FOM defects? 412
32.What are the advantages of the radial forearm flap for intraoral reconstruction? 412
33.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the jejunum free flap for intraoral reconstruction? 412
34.Describe the vascular anatomy and harvest of the jejunum flap 413
35.Evaluate the lateral arm flap for tongue reconstruction 413
36.What is the role of the laser in oral cavity cancer? 413
Bibliography 413
Chapter 62:Mandible Reconstruction 414
1.Who was Andy Gump? 414
2.Describe the functional deficits associated with the Andy Gump deformity 414
3.What functional deficits are associated with lateral mandibulectomy? 414
4.What are the main goals and considerations in mandibular reconstruction? 414
5.What are the advantages of immediate mandibular reconstruction? 414
6.How do you manage a patient with a shotgun wound to the face? 414
7.What are conventional techniques for mandibular reconstruction? 414
8.What are the indications for a no-bone reconstruction? 415
9.What is the role of nonvascularized bone grafts? 415
10.What are the advantages of reconstruction plates, with or without soft tissue reconstruction? 415
11.What are the disadvantages of reconstruction plates, with or without soft tissue reconstruction? 415
12.What are the advantages of the radial forearm osteocutaneous flap? 415
13.What are the disadvantages of the radial forearm osteocutaneous flap? 415
14.What are the major reasons for donor radius fracture? 415
15.How can donor radius fracture be prevented? 415
16.What are the advantages of the iliac crest osteocutaneous flap? 416
17.What are the disadvantages of the iliac crest osteocutaneous flap? 416
18.What are the advantages of the scapular osteocutaneous flap? 416
19.What are the disadvantages of the scapular osteocutaneous flap? 416
20.What are the advantages of the fibular osteocutaneous flap? 416
21.What are the disadvantages of the fibular osteocutaneous flap? 416
22.Compare the common vascularized composite tissue transfers and donor sites for oromandibular reconstruction. 416
23.Provide algorithms for microvascular mandibular reconstruction 416
24.Is there a role for sequential free flaps? 416
2.What is the role of dental rehabilitation by osseointegration? 416
26.What are important considerations in reconstruction (or construction) of the pediatric mandible? 418
27.Name three primary indications for mandibular reconstruction in the child 418
Bibliography 418
Chapter 63:Scalp Reconstruction 420
1.What are the common causes of scalp defects? 420
2.What are the five anatomic layers of the scalp? 420
3.What is the arterial supply of the scalp? 420
4.What is the sensory nerve supply of the scalp? 420
5.How many fascial layers can be found in the temporoparietal region of the scalp? Describe the relationship of the frontal branch of the facial nerve to these fascial layers. 420
6.Describe the course of the deep temporal fascia. 420
7.What factors affect the selection of a scalp reconstruction method? 421
8.What are the principles of the management of acute scalp wounds? 421
9.What are Hatchet, Worthen, and Orticochea flaps? 421
10.Describe the anatomy and uses of the temporalis myofascial flap 422
11.What is aplasia cutis congenita? 422
12.What are the indications and advantages of using a skin graft for coverage of scalp wounds? 422
13.Can a skin graft be used to cover decorticated outer table skull? 422
14.How do you manage scalp wounds after radiation therapy or tumor resection? 422
15.Do periosteal flaps have any role in scalp reconstruction? 422
16.What is the major indication for use of regional or distant flaps for scalp reconstruction? 422
17.What are the indications for the use of free flaps for scalp reconstruction? 422
18.What are the advantages of free flaps? 422
19.What are the most commonly used free flaps for scalp reconstruction? 422
20.What makes a radial forearm flap an ideal free flap for the scalp? 423
21.What are the disadvantages of free flaps for scalp reconstruction? 423
22.What are the available options for reconstruction of scalp bony defects? 423
23.What is the role of tissue expansion in scalp reconstruction? 423
24.What is the major drawback of tissue expanders? 423
25.What is the main concern in the use of scalp tissue expansion in children? 423
26.What are the potential complications of scalp tissue expansion? 423
27.What are the advantages of an expanded free scalp flap? 423
28.What is the role of scalp replantation? 423
29.Is there a role for biomaterials in scalp reconstruction? 423
Bibliography 423
Chapter 64:Surgical Anatomy of the Facial Nerve 425
1.From which foramen does the main trunk of the facial nerve exit the skull, and what type of fibers does it contain? 425
2.How do you locate the main trunk of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy? 425
3.“Great nerves travel together.” How does this apply to the relationship of the facial nerve to other cranial nerves? 425
4.Does the facial nerve innervate the posterior or the anterior belly of the digastric muscle? 425
5.What muscle does the facial nerve innervate in the middle ear, and what does it do? 425
6.Which brachial cleft arch does the facial nerve arise from? Which brachial cleft arch does the trigeminal nerve arise from? 425
7.What are the major branches of the facial nerve before and after it enters the parotid? 425
8.What is the relationship of the facial nerve to the superficial musculoaponeurotic system? 425
9.What is Bell’s palsy? 426
1.Do the facial muscles of expression receive their innervation along their superficial or deep surface? 426
11.What is the course of the frontal branch of the facial nerve? 426
12.What is the relationship of the frontal branch of the facial nerve to the SMAS and temporoparietal fascia? 426
13.What are the “facial danger zones”? 427
14.What is the incidence of facial nerve injury during a standard rhytidectomy? Which nerve is damaged most often? What are the chances for recovery? 428
Controversy 428
Bibliography 428
Chapter 65:Reanimation of the Paralyzed Face 429
1.Describe the embryogenesis of the facial nerve. 429
2.What is the primary function of the facial nerve? 429
3.Where is the motor nucleus of the facial nerve located? 429
4.Which side of the brain controls voluntary facial expression? 429
5.How does an upper motor neuron lesion present? 429
6.What is the neural pathway of spontaneous facial expressions? 429
7.What is “synkinesis,” and what causes these abnormal movements? 430
8.How does an intratemporal lesion of the facial nerve differ in presentation from an extratemporal lesion? 430
9.How can you differentiate an intratemporal from an extratemporal lesion of the facial nerve? 430
10.When obtaining the history from a patient with facial paralysis, what are the key questions you should ask? 430
11.What should you look for on physical examination? 430
12.What other documentation is necessary in the office setting? 430
13.How long after injury to the facial nerve can some function be restored with microsurgery? 430
14.Once the diagnosis is made, how do you establish a strategy of reconstruction? 431
15.Which branch of the facial nerve is most commonly injured during a routine facelift? 431
16.What preoperative tests are mandatory in facial paralysis work? Why? 431
17.What are the advantages and disadvantages of ipsilateral nerve grafting? 431
18.What is CFNG? 431
19.What are the advantages and disadvantages of CFNG? 431
20.In the CFNG procedure, how do you determine when the regenerating facial nerve motor fibers have crossed the face? 432
21.Describe the postoperative management after a completed CFNG procedure 432
22.When are crossover procedures considered? Why? 432
23.What is the “babysitter” principle? 432
24.What are the indications for free muscle transfer in facial paralysis? 432
25.What criteria determine the choice of foreign donor muscles? 433
26.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the gracilis free muscle transfer (Fig. 65-3)? 433
27.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the pectoralis minor muscle transfer? 434
28.What are the advantages and disadvantages of local muscle transfers? 434
29.What are the prerequisite criteria for the diagnosis of Möbius syndrome? 434
30.What are the reconstructive goals in a child with Möbius syndrome? 434
31.Discuss current microsurgical approaches for the paralyzed eye sphincter. 435
32.What are the surgical options for correction of unilateral lower lip palsy? 435
33.What are the indications for use of digastric versus platysma muscle in lower lip reanimation? 435
34.What outcomes can be obtained with free muscle transfer for long-lasting facial paralysis? 435
Bibliography 435
Section VI: Breast Surgery 437
Chapter 66:Augmentation Mammaplasty 439
1.What is augmentation mammaplasty? 439
2.Who was the first to perform this procedure? 439
3.What are the indications for breast augmentation? 439
4.Does the preoperative shape of the breast affect the results obtained by augmentation mammaplasty? 439
5.Is there an age limit to breast augmentation? 439
6.Who performs breast augmentation procedures? 439
7.What type of anesthesia is required? 439
8.Should prophylactic antibiotics be used? 440
9.How do you choose the size of the breast implant? 440
10.What incisions are used for augmentation mammaplasty? 440
11.Where is the implant placed in augmentation mammaplasty? 440
12.What is the “dual-plane” technique? 440
13.What types of breast implants are available? 440
14.What are the advantages of anatomic implants? 441
15.Are silicone gel-filled implants currently available for augmentation mammaplasty? 441
16.What postoperative care is required after augmentation mammaplasty? 441
17.What are the potential complications? 441
18.What is capsular contracture? 441
19.What is the classification of capsular contracture? 441
20.How is capsular contracture treated? 442
21.Is there a risk of rupture of the breast implant? 442
22.How do you diagnose implant rupture? 442
23.How is implant rupture treated? 442
24.Can you breastfeed after undergoing breast augmentation? 442
25.Is sensation to the nipple and areola affected after breast augmentation? 442
26.Is there an increased risk for breast cancer in patients undergoing breast augmentation? 442
27.How can you screen for breast cancer in a patient with breast implants? 443
28.Are silicone gel-filled implants safe? 443
29.Is breast augmentation covered by insurance? 443
Bibliography 443
Chapter 67:Reduction Mammaplasty 444
1.What is the blood supply to the breast? 444
2.What is the nerve supply to the breast? To the nipple? 444
3.Why do pedicles other than the inferior ones seem to have as much sensation postoperatively? 444
4.What are the most popular techniques used for breast reduction in the United States? 445
5.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the vertical reduction technique? 445
6.What are the advantages and disadvantages of the inferior pedicle reduction technique? 446
7.What are some other methods of breast reduction, and what are the advantages and disadvantages of each? 446
8.Why are the short scar techniques not popular in the United States? 447
9.What are the primary differences between Dr. Lejour’s vertical reduction technique and Dr. Hall-Findlay’s modified technique? 447
10.What technique(s) generates the most litigation? 447
11.What are common indications for breast reduction? 447
12.Do studies support the efficacy of breast reduction for symptomatic patients? 447
13.At what age should breast reduction be performed? 448
14.Is lactation possible after breast reduction? 448
15.How has the postoperative hospital stay changed over the last 10 years? 448
16.Is autologous blood donation recommended? 448
17.Are drains necessary? 448
18.Are patients satisfied with their results? 448
19.When are free nipple grafts recommended? 448
20.What is the incidence of occult breast cancer in reduction specimens? 448
21.What are the most common complications of reduction mammaplasty? 448
22.Do nipple grafts regain sensation? Erectile capacity? 449
23.How can nipple viability be determined intraoperatively? 449
24.What do you do if the nipples look compromised? 449
25.What do you do with those lateral dog ears? 449
26.What about medial dog ears? 449
Controversy 449
Bibliography 449
Chapter 68:Mastopexy 451
1.What defines an aesthetically pleasing breast? 451
2.Describe the form and dimensions of the normal breast 451
3.Describe the developmental phases of the breast 451
4.What are the supporting structures of the breast? 451
5.What are the characteristics of a ptotic or sagging breast? 452
6.What factors contribute to breast ptosis? 452
7.Describe the classification system for grading breast ptosis 452
8.What are the goals of mastopexy? 452
9.Are the effects of mastopexy permanent? 452
10.What are the major drawbacks to mastopexy? 452
11.What are the advantages and disadvantages of implants after mastopexy? 453
12.How are scars tolerated on the breast? 453
13.What are the blood supply and innervation to the breast? 453
14.What are the pertinent anatomic features in planning a mastopexy procedure? 453
15.What are the various surgical options available for treatment of breast ptosis? 453
16.What is a Benelli mastopexy? 454
17.What is tailor-tacking? 454
18.What is meant by a constricted breast or inferior-pole hyperplasia? 454
19.What are the common complications of mastopexy? 455
Bibliography 455
Chapter 69:Diseases of the Breast 456
1.What are the incidence, risk probability, and mortality for female breast cancer? Does radiation increase survival? 456
2.Which factors are known to increase the risk of breast cancer? What factors are known to decrease the risk of breast cancer? 456
3.Can breast cancer be inherited? What is the increased risk if a woman carries BRCA1, BRCA2, or both? 456
4.What is ductal carcinoma in situ? Is it a precancerous state? What is the risk of invasive cancer? What is the treatment? What about lobular carcinoma in situ? 456
5.When should a woman begin mammographic screening? Are there exceptions? Has routine mammography reduced mortality? 456
6.What features make a mammographic lesion suspicious for malignancy? Do all lesions require biopsy? 456
7.Is there a role for fine-needle aspiration for palpable breast masses? Is there a role for mammography? 457
8.What is the diagnostic accuracy of physical examination, mammography, and FNA combined? 457
9.What are the borders of the axilla? 457
10.Which nerves can be identified during an axillary lymph node dissection? What is their role? 457
11.What features on presentation suggest a hereditary breast cancer? 457
12.How does tamoxifen work? Who benefits? How much? 457
13.What is the STAR trial? 457
14.What are the current controversies surrounding chemotherapy benefit in female patients with breast cancer? 458
15.What are the most common areas of recurrence? 458
16.What is trastuzumab? 458
17.What is the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 5-year survival rate for breast cancer? 458
18.What is the most common solid breast mass in women younger than 30 years? Does this lesion have malignant potential? 458
19.What are the most common organisms cultured from nipple discharge in a woman with a breast abscess? What is the treatment? 458
20.A woman presents with diffuse, bilateral breast pain associated with her menstrual cycle. Palpation reveals multiple nodular irregularities. What is the disorder? Is it premalignant? 458
21.What is Her2? Why is it important? 458
22.What is p53? Why is it important? 458
23.Besides BRCA1 and BRCA2, name three other autosomal dominant syndromes that carry an increased risk of breast cancer 458
24.What is atypical hyperplasia? Does it increase the risk of breast cancer? 458
25.What is the Gail model? What are its limitations? 459
26.What is chemoprevention? 459
Bibliography 459
Chapter 70:Breast Reconstruction 460
1.What are the options for breast reconstruction following mastectomy? 460
2.What are the indications for prophylactic mastectomy, and why is the incidence increasing? 460
3.Why do some women have an immediate reconstruction and others a delayed reconstruction? 460
4.What are the best methods of surveillance following breast reconstruction in women with a history of breast cancer? 460
5.Is there an optimal time to perform breast reconstruction in the setting of radiation therapy? 460
6.What is a TRAM flap? 460
7.What is the delay procedure, and when should it be used? 461
8.What is the importance of supercharging? 461
9.What is a perforator flap, and why is it becoming a popular method of breast reconstruction? 461
10.Are there functional and aesthetic differences between the TRAM flap and the DIEP flap? 461
11.What are the ideal recipient vessels for microvascular breast reconstruction? 461
12.How can microvascular complications be minimized? 461
13.What are the indications for a latissimus dorsi flap? 461
14.What are the indications for breast reconstruction with implants? 462
15.How does a surgeon decide on the size, shape, texture, and filler material of an implant? 462
16.What is the evidence that silicone gel breast implants are safe and effective devices? 462
17.What are the reasons for premature removal of an implant or expander? 462
18.How often are secondary procedures necessary following breast reconstruction? 462
19.What are the options for nipple reconstruction? 462
20.Is there evidence that quality of life is improved following breast reconstruction? 462
Bibliography 463
Chapter 71:Nipple-Areola Reconstruction 464
1.Should nipple-areola reconstruction be an integral part of breast reconstruction or an added option for certain patients? 464
2.Should nipple-areola reconstruction be performed at a second stage after primary reconstruction of the mound? 464
3.Is banking of the nipple-areola in the groin area an appropriate alternative to reconstruction if the primary cancer is located away from the nipple-areola? 464
4.Do options for nipple reconstruction include composite grafts from the toe or earlobe? 464
5.What is the treatment of choice for nipple reconstruction? 464
6.Is the best way to determine nipple-areola position by measurement from the other side? 464
7.Are flap techniques for nipple reconstruction interchangeable and merely a matter of the surgeon’s preference? 465
8.What type of nipple reconstruction is inherently unreliable? 465
9.Do the best designs in nipple reconstruction allow closure of the donor site, thus avoiding the need for grafting? 465
10.Is the skate flap the best design to use for matching an opposite large nipple? 465
11.Is there a disadvantage to the use of a skin graft in the final outcome of the nipple-areola? 466
12.Can subsequent intradermal tattoo hide spread donor-site scars after nipple reconstruction? 466
13.What are the other disadvantages to spread scars after primary closure of nipple donor sites? 466
14.When using a local flap to reconstruct the missing nipple, should the dimensions of the planned nipple match those of the opposite nipple? 466
15.Are some nipples too large to match by nipple reconstruction? 466
16.Does raising the skate flap with full-thickness wings produce a better overall result? 466
17.Do the best results in areola reconstruction follow the grafting of skin that later becomes pigmented spontaneously? 466
18.What is the treatment of choice for areola reconstruction? 466
19.Are coloration or tattoo techniques at the time of nipple reconstruction helpful? 466
20.When is the ideal time for nipple–areola tattoo? 466
21.Is one of the most important attributes of nipple reconstruction a centric position within the areola? 467
22.Is the best equipment for nipple–areola tattoo the delicate machinery supplied by manufacturers specializing in medical equipment? 467
23.Does nipple–areola reconstruction require a long learning curve until acceptable results can be achieved? 467
24.Should the final color immediately after tattoo match the opposite nipple-areola? 467
Bibliography 467
Chapter 72:Gynecomastia 468
1.What is gynecomastia? 468
2.What is the pathophysiology of gynecomastia? 468
3.What is the histology in gynecomastia? 468
4.Classify the etiologies of gynecomastia. 468
5.In what age groups does gynecomastia occur? 468
6.How common is gynecomastia in each age group? 468
7.How often does gynecomastia occur bilaterally? Is one side more commonly affected? 468
8.How does obesity correlate with gynecomastia? 468
9.Are patients with gynecomastia symptomatic? 468
10.What questions are pertinent in taking the history? 468
11.What physical findings should be sought? 469
12.What laboratory studies should be obtained? 469
13.Should routine imaging studies be ordered? 469
14.What are the most common causes of pathologic gynecomastia? 469
15.Which tumors may lead to gynecomastia? 469
16.Does gynecomastia ever resolve? 469
17.What is the differential diagnosis? 469
18.Which drugs may cause gynecomastia? 469
19.What is pseudogynecomastia? 469
20.Is there any relationship between gynecomastia and breast cancer in adult males? 469
21.What is the role of medical therapy? 469
22.What is the role of radiation therapy? 470
23.What are the indications for surgery? 470
24.Describe the surgical classification of gynecomastia. 470
25.Discuss the surgical techniques used for gynecomastia 470
26. What are the most common complicationsafter surgery? 471
27.Which techniques may prevent unwanted results? 471
Bibliography 472
Section VII: Aesthetic Surgery 473
Chapter 73.Evaluation of the Aging Face 475
1.Give examples of trigger events that may cause a person to seek consultation for aesthetic facial rejuvenation 475
2.What elements compose the initial aesthetic facial surgery consultation? 475
3.What factors contribute to the aged appearance of the face? 475
4.What intrinsic changes of the skin may be seen in the aging face? 475
5.Outline the chronologic appearance of signs of aging in the face and neck 475
6.What changes in the facial skeleton occur with aging? 476
7.Which anatomic structures of the face are vital to know when planning facial rejuvenation surgery? 476
8.Which retaining ligaments provide support to the soft tissues and skin of the face over the bony skeleton? 476
9.What signs of facial aging are correctable by aesthetic rejuvenative surgery? 477
10.What signs noted on physical examination of the forehead can be corrected by aesthetic facial rejuvenative surgery? 477
11.What is the normal or ideal position for the female eyebrow? 477
12.What signs of aging in eyelids are correctable by aesthetic rejuvenative surgery? 478
13.Is an ophthalmologic consultation required for all patients before undergoing aesthetic rejuvenation of the eyelids? 478
14.What signs of aging in external ears can be corrected by aesthetic rejuvenation? 478
15.What signs of aging of the nose are correctable by aesthetic rejuvenative surgery? 478
16.What signs of aging in the perioral region can be corrected by surgical rejuvenation? 478
17.What signs of aging in the neck can be corrected by aesthetic rejuvenation? 478
18.Why are preoperative photographs necessary? 479
19.What visual records are used to document preoperative appearance? 479
20.What standard views of the face and neck are taken for photographic documentation? 479
21.What additional views may be taken to demonstrate deformities? 479
22.Does the consultation for aesthetic facial rejuvenative surgery differ for men and women? 479
23.What differences are noted between men and women in evaluating patients for aesthetic facial surgical rejuvenation? 479
24.As people age, is it better to “start early” and undergo procedures when signs of facial aging begin or to wait and have “everything done at once”? 479
25.What is the best age at which to undergo aesthetic facial rejuvenative surgery? 479
26.Is there an age at which the patient is “too old” to undergo facial rejuvenative surgery? 479
27.How long do the results of facial rejuvenative surgery last? 480
28.Where can facial rejuvenative surgery be performed? 480
29.What type of anesthesia is most appropriate for facial rejuvenative surgery? 480
30.Who may not be considered candidates for facial rejuvenative surgery? 480
31.Who else may not be considered good candidates for aesthetic facial rejuvenative surgery? 480
32.What five rare skin conditions may present as premature aging with or without skin laxity? Is facial aesthetic surgical rejuvenation indicated? 480
Bibliography 480
Chapter 74:Forehead and Brow Lift 482
1.Describe the arterial and nerve supply to the forehead 482
2.The supraorbital nerve has a deep and superficial division. Describe the course of each division and the area that it innervates 482
3.Describe the anatomy of the frontal nerve 482
4.What is the function of the musculi frontalis? 482
5.Which three facial muscles oppose the brow-lifting activity of the musculi frontalis? 482
6.Describe the orbital ligament and its significance in brow lifting 482
7.Which muscles of the face are responsible for the deep transverse forehead lines, vertical glabellar creases, and transverse... 482
8.Describe Ellenbogen’s criteria for the ideal eyebrow position and contour 482
9.Which systematic approach should be used to evaluate the contour of the eyebrow? 483
10.What are the indications for a forehead and brow lift? 483
11.Where is the plane of dissection for the development of the forehead flap? 483
12.What is the supraciliary eyebrow lift? 483
13.What is a midforehead lift? 483
14.What is a bitemporal lift? 483
15.What is a limited incision (lateral) forehead lift? 483
16.Before the development of the endoscope, what were the most popular techniques for forehead and brow lift? 483
17.Which factors determine the preference for a standard bicoronal or modified anterior hairline incision? 483
18.What are the potential complications of a forehead and brow lift? 483
19.What are the major operative principles of an endoscopic forehead lift? 484
20.What are the advantages of an endoscopic forehead lift? 484
21.What are the disadvantages of an endoscopic forehead lift? 484
22.Describe several fixation techniques for the endoscopic brow lift 484
Bibliography 484
Chapter 75:Blepharoplasty 485
1.What is blepharoplasty? 485
2.What is the difference between blepharochalasis and blepharodermatochalasis (dermatochalasis)? Between steatoblepharon and blepharoptosis? 485
3.Is blepharoplasty the procedure of choice for brightening and refreshing the eye region? 485
4.What is compensated brow ptosis? 486
5.If blepharoplasty is not the procedure of choice, what is? 486
6.What is the youngest age at which a patient should consider blepharoplasty? 486
7.Is the preaponeurotic fat continuous with the deeper orbital fat? 486
8.Is it important to remove most of the fat from the lateral or central-lateral upper eyelid during blepharoplasty? 487
9.What structure is often mistaken for fat in the upper eyelid? 487
10.Does removal of the palpebral lobe of the lacrimal gland have any deleterious consequences? What about the orbital lobe? 487
11.What is a retrobulbar hemorrhage? What are the common causes and possible consequences? 488
12.How is a retrobulbar hemorrhage treated? 488
13.What are the advantages and disadvantages of a transconjunctival blepharoplasty? 488
14.What effect does blepharoplasty or tissue removal from the upper eyelid have on the position of the eyebrows? 488
15.Does lower lid skin or skin-muscle resection change the shape of the eye? If so, how? 488
16.What are the most common causes of postoperative eyelid ptosis? 489
17.How is blepharoptosis categorized? 489
18.What is the treatment of postsurgical lagophthalmos? 489
19.What forms the supratarsal fold? 489
20.What is the double eyelid operation often requested by Asians or people of Asian ancestry? 490
21.Where is the peripheral arterial arcade of the eyelid located? 491
22.When is a coronal lift contraindicated? 491
23.When is it appropriate to resect frontalis muscle? 491
24.Why does the medial brow commonly drop after blepharoplasty and/or elevation of the lateral brow? 491
25.How do you plan a medial epicanthoplasty? 491
2.How do you avoid lash or lid eversion and areas of lid retraction associated with invagination or “double eyelid” blepharoplasty? 492
27.Are wedge resections and tarsal strip canthopexies recommended procedures for tightening the lower lid? 492
28.What are the pros and cons of the endoscopic forehead lift? 492
29.Are transblepharoplasty methods of corrugator muscle resection and brow elevation effective for eliminating deformity? How do they compare with other techniques? 493
30.When is a direct excision of lower eyelid skin indicated? 493
31.What is the best method to rid a patient of the deep grooves commonly present near the junction of the eyelid and cheek skin? 494
32.How do you permanently secure the brow into its desired (elevated) position? 494
33.What is Whitnall’s ligament? 494
34.What is Lockwood’s ligament? 494
35.In patients with eyeliner and eyebrow tattoos, where should the blepharoplasty incisions be placed? 494
36.Which cranial nerve innervates the lacrimal pump that drains the tears? 495
37.What is the difference in the terms “canthopexy” and “canthoplasty” as applied to tightening procedures on the lower eyelids? 495
38.During blepharoplasty, where is the “white” fat? 495
Bibliography 495
Chapter 76:The Nasolabial Fold 496
1.What are the nasolabial crease, nasolabial fold, and malar fat pad? 496
2.What are marionette lines? 496
3.What is one of the more noticeable aesthetic changes between a young adult and the same person 30 years later? 496
4.What is the anatomy of the NLF area? 496
5.What are mimetic muscles? What is the relationship between the SMAS and the mimetic musculature near the NLF? 496
6.What is the anatomic and clinical difference between the tissue medial and lateral to the NLC? 496
7.What are the retaining ligaments of the face? 496
8.Which of the retaining ligaments suspend the malar fat pad? 497
9.Does any other anatomic structure contribute to supporting the malar fat pad? 497
10.What is the cause of a prominent NLF? 497
11.What are the sequential migration vectors of the cheek mass? 497
12.What is the role of midface muscle in a prominent NLF? 497
13.What is the effect of facial nerve paralysis on NLF appearance? 498
14.What can you inject or insert in the NLC to improve its appearance? 498
15.When should fat injection of the NLC be considered? 498
16.When performing fat grafting, how much fat should be injected? 498
17.What short-term injectable agents are available to treat the NLC? 498
18.What are the two most commonly used longer lasting agents for the treatment of the NLC? 498
19.Who is the best candidate for direct crease excision? 498
20.What can you offer a patient with thick skin and slight fold prominence who prefers a minimally invasive procedure? 498
21.How can the malar fat pad be repositioned? 498
22.How extensive need the SMAS dissection be to elevate the malar fat pad to its original position and decrease NLF prominence? 498
23.With the extended SMAS dissection, what step should be performed at the level of the zygomaticus major muscle to maximize resuspension of the malar fat pad? 498
24.What change do you expect in the NLF with superior and lateral SMAS pulling without releasing the SMAS from the zygomaticus major muscle? 499
25.In the malar fat pad suspension technique, the fat pad vector is the skin flap. Describe this approach. 499
26.When the malar fat pad is based within a skin flap vector, what is the direction and the amount of fat pad lifting needed to correct the NLF? 499
27.What is the role of suction-assisted lipectomy in corrective surgery of the NLF? 499
28.What is the role of the subperiosteal approach in corrective surgery of the NLF? 499
29.What is the recommended amount of undermining below the fat pad to address the NLF? 499
30.Describe the anatomy of the subcutaneous fat deposits in the face. How do these deposits affect the appearance of the NLF and the aging face? 499
31.What adjunct can be offered to the patient who requests treatment of the NLCs that is both minimally invasive and reversible? 499
32.Which muscles of the face are most responsible for the smiling mechanism? Which is most responsible for forming the medial NLC? 499
33.Which of the following approaches to rhytidectomy best addresses the NLF: Lateral SMAS-ectomy, conventional SMAS, extended SMAS, or composite rhytidectomy? 500
Bibliography 501
Chapter 77:Rhytidectomy 502
1.What are the different types of face lift procedures? 502
2.Describe the various face lift techniques used and give an example of a good candidate for each 502
3.What are the retaining ligaments of the face? 503
4.When does a patient need a deep-plane lift of the midface? 503
5.How can the malar fat pad be repositioned? 503
6.What are some of the common tell-tale signs of face lift surgery? 504
7.What are the acceptable locations for the preauricular incision, and what are the indications for each? 505
8.How does a surgeon avoid creating a “step” or surgical distortion of the occipital hairline? 505
9.What is a “witch’s chin” deformity? 505
10.How can jowls be corrected? 506
11.What factors can lead to hematoma formation after face lift surgery? 506
12.What is the treatment of an expanding hematoma? 506
13.What is the incidence of hematoma formation requiring evacuation after rhytidectomy? 507
14.Five days after an SMAS face lift a 50-year-old woman has a ballotable fluid collection of approximately 8 mL in the right 507
15.Two days later the fluid has reaccumulated. What is the likely diagnosis? 507
16.What may be the cause of persistent lower cheek fullness in a patient who has undergone a face lift? 507
17.Which nerve is the most commonly injured during a rhytidectomy? 507
18.If you recognize injury to the great auricular nerve at surgery, what should you do? 508
19.What symptoms may occur after surgery if the great auricular nerve is injured? 508
20.What is the motor innervation of the platysma muscle, and what role does it play in facial animation? 508
21.Which of the following branches of the facial nerve lies superficial to the deep facial fascia? 508
22.What is the topographical course of the frontal branch of the facial nerve? 508
23.Four weeks after undergoing an extended SMAS rhytidectomy, a 57-year-old woman has persistence of dense hemiparesis over the distribution of the right marginal mandibular nerve... 508
24.A 62-year-old woman who underwent subcutaneous rhytidectomy with SMAS plication 1 week ago notices that the left side of her upper lip does not elevate when she attempts to smile... 510
25.In the aging face, which procedure is most likely to worsen the prominence of the nasolabial fold? 510
26.A 58-year-old man with prominent nasolabial folds undergoes rhytidectomy. ­Sub-SMAS dissection is performed to the level of 510
27.A 60-year-old woman requests rhytidectomy. She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 20 years. What postoperative complication would most likely occur? 510
28.After undergoing an uncomplicated primary rhytidectomy, a 59-year-old woman has early onset of ischemia and subsequent full-thickness skin slough of a 3 × 5-cm area anterior to the left earlobe... 511
29.Prominence of the nasolabial folds in the aged patient results primarily from loss of support in which of the retaining ligaments? 511
30.Which vessel is the dominant blood supply to the preauricular skin that is undermined during rhytidectomy? 511
31.Why is rhytidectomy more difficult to perform in men than in women? 511
32.A 58-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo full-face rhytidectomy followed by phenol chemical peeling for facial rejuvenation... 511
33.Who is the ideal patient for a short scar rhytidectomy? 511
34.What technical maneuvers are often necessary when performing a short scar rhytidectomy? 511
35.What are the potential complications of submandibular gland excision for neck contouring in rhytidectomy? 512
36.What are the criteria for a youthful neck as described by Ellenbogen and Karlin? 512
37.When is suction lipectomy of the neck indicated for improvement of cervicomental contour? 512
38.A 65-year-old woman desires facial rejuvenation and has an obtuse cervicomental angle, noticeable fat pads in the anterior neck, and vertical, diverging subcutaneous... 512
Bibliography 513
Chapter 78:Rhinoplasty 514
1.The proximal, middle, and distal thirds of the nose are associated with what underlying anatomic structures? 514
2.List the nasal subunits 514
3.How are the nasal bones, upper lateral cartilages, and lower lateral cartilages situated in relation to each other? 514
4.What are the major tip support mechanisms? 514
5.What are the minor tip support mechanisms? 514
6.How is the nasal length defined? 514
7.What is the scroll? 514
8.What is the keystone area? 514
9.What is the “ideal” nasolabial angle in a male? In a female? 514
10.What are the surgical approaches for rhinoplasty? 514
11.How is tip projection determined? 515
12.Name three ways to determine nasal tip projection 515
13.What is the brow-tip aesthetic line? 515
14.Which structures make up the internal nasal valve, and what should its angle be? 515
15.What is the blood supply to the nasal tip? 515
16.Where is the nasal starting point for rhinoplasty in a Caucasian patient? Is it different for an Asian patient? 515
17.When performing septoplasty, how much cartilage should be left intact? 515
18.What are the three main sources for grafting in rhinoplasty? 515
19.What grafting technique(s) can the surgeon use to open/widen the internal nasal valve? 516
20.Which structures make up the external nasal valve? How can external valve collapse be corrected? 517
21.What is a common cause of postoperative supraalar pinching, and how can it be corrected? 517
22.What techniques are available surgically to stabilize the base of the nose? 517
23.What are the indications for each method of nasal base stabilization, and how is each performed? 518
24.What action should be taken in a patient with an infected nasal allograft? 518
25.What is a saddle nose deformity, and what are its causes? 520
26.What is a pollybeak deformity and what are its causes? 520
27.What is an “inverted V” deformity? 520
28.What is a stairstep deformity? How can it be prevented? 520
29.What is cephalic positioning of the lateral crura? 520
Bibliography 523
Chapter 79:Otoplasty 524
1.What is a prominent ear? 524
2.What are the pathologic characteristics of the prominent ear deformity? 524
3.What are the embryologic origins of the ear? 524
4.When does antihelical folding begin in utero? 524
5.By what age has the ear attained 85% of adult size? When should otoplasty be performed? 524
6.What is the nerve and vascular supply to the ear? 525
7.What are the normal proportions of the ear? 525
8.How is ear protrusion defined? 525
9.What is the average distance of each third of the ear from the head? 525
10.What is the normal incline of the ear? 525
11.Should the helix be visible from the frontal view? 525
12.What are the anatomic goals of otoplasty? 525
13.Who performed the first otoplasty? 525
14.Can skin excision alone correct the prominent ear deformity? 525
15.What important concept did Luckett contribute to the principles of otoplasty? 525
16.What is Gibson’s principle? 526
17.What is the Stenstrom technique? 526
18.What is the purpose of conchomastoidal sutures? 526
19.Is there another way to reduce conchal projection? 526
20.What is the purpose of Mustardé sutures? 526
21.How is a prominent lobule corrected? 526
22.Correction of which third of the ear is most important? 526
23.What is a “telephone ear” deformity? 527
24.What is the difference between cartilage-molding and cartilage-breaking techniques? 527
25.What is the most common late deformity after otoplasty? 527
26.What is the most likely cause of sudden onset of pain after otoplasty? 528
27.Which organisms usually are responsible for cellulitis after otoplasty? 528
28.Can chondritis occur after otoplasty? 528
29.When can prominent ears be treated nonoperatively? 528
30.Which is the best technique for correction of the prominent ear deformity? 528
31.Describe patient management after otoplasty. 528
Controversy 528
Bibliography 528
Chapter 80:Abdominoplasty 530
1.\x0BWhat is the blood supply of the anterior abdominal wall? 530
2.What are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall? 530
3.What is the superficial fascial system? 532
4.What are the basic elements of abdominal contour abnormalities? 532
5.What is the basic surgical approach to abdominoplasty? 532
6.What is a fleur-de-lis abdominoplasty? 532
7.What are the indications for the so-called miniabdominoplasty? 533
8.What are the contraindications for abdominoplasty? 533
9.What is the difference between an abdominoplasty and a panniculectomy? 533
10.Can liposuction alone be used to rejuvenate the abdomen? 533
11.What is the role of liposuction in abdominoplasty? 533
12.Can musculofascial laxity of the abdominal wall be repaired? 533
13.Where and how should umbilicus be placed? 533
14.What are the complications of abdominoplasty? How can they be minimized? 535
Bibliography 535
Chapter 81:Body Contouring 536
1.What is the anatomic distribution of fat in men and women? 536
2.Are there differences in the layers of fat? 536
3.How is cellulite formed? 536
4.If fat is removed, will it come back? 536
5.What is liposuction? 536
6.Who originally developed liposuction? When did it become accepted? 536
7.What are the indications for liposuction? 536
8.What is the difference between ultrasound-assisted liposuction and traditional liposuction? 536
9.What is wetting solution? Why do we use it? 536
10.What are the compositions of the more common wetting solutions? 537
11.How are intravenous fluids managed during liposuction? 537
12.What are the recommended aspirate volumes for outpatient liposuction? 537
13.What is a maximal safe dose of lidocaine when administered as a wetting solution? 537
14.Should you be concerned about lidocaine toxicity during the procedure? 537
15.If you are planning a large-volume liposuction (>5 L), how should the infiltrate be modified? 537
16.What are the most common sequelae of liposuction? 537
17.What are the most common complications of liposuction? 537
18.Is it safe to perform liposuction with abdominoplasty? 538
19.What is the recommended treatment of gynecomastia? 538
20.Does the excessive skin need to be resected after removal of fat via liposuction? 538
21.How do you determine whether a patient will benefit from abdominoplasty versus liposuction? 538
22.What is the treatment of arm ptosis and lipodystrophy? 538
23.Where should the final scar in a formal brachioplasty lie? 538
24.How do you prevent complications from a medial thigh lift? 538
25.What is autologous fat transplantation? 538
26.What are Autologen and Alloderm? 538
27.Does the use of Autologen and Alloderm involve any risk? 538
Controversies 538
Bibliography 539
Chapter 82:Body Contouring After Massive Weight Loss 540
1.What is the incidence of morbid obesity in the United States? 540
2.What is the BMI, and how is it determined? 540
3.What are the surgical options available for patients with morbid obesity? 540
4.What is the impact of this on the field of plastic surgery? 540
5.Why is body contouring in massive weight loss patients a greater challenge? 541
6.What is the ideal time interval to initiate body contouring surgery? 542
7.What is the role of liposuction in morbidly obese patients? 542
8.What are some of the considerations of breast surgery in massive weight loss patients? 542
9.How is gynecomastia in the male treated after massive weight loss? 543
10. Describe some techniques used for brachioplasty after massive weight loss 543
11. Explain the different terminologies used for contouring procedures of the abdomen and the lower body 543
12.What is a lower body lift? An upper body lift? 544
13.What are some considerations in markings for a lower body lift? 544
14.What are positioning options for lower body lift? What precautions need to be taken with this positioning? 545
15.What are the surgical options for inner thigh lift? 545
16.What are some common risks of body contouring surgery after massive weight loss? 545
17.What measures can surgeons take to reduce the risk of VTE? 546
Bibliography 546
Chapter 83:Chemical Peeling and Dermabrasion 547
1.What is chemical peeling? 547
2.What are the indications for chemical peeling? 547
3.What agents are most commonly used for chemical peeling? What are the typical concentrations? 547
4.What does Jessner’s solution contain? 548
5.How do you choose a particular peeling agent to suit your patient’s skin type? 548
6.Is pretreatment necessary before chemical peeling? 548
7.Is taping necessary during chemical peeling? 548
8.Can peeling be done simultaneously with surgery? 548
9.Which should be done first: facial surgery or facial peeling? 549
10.What complications may be encountered after peeling? 549
11.What peeling solution may cause cardiac arrhythmias when it is applied too rapidly to too large an area? 549
12.Regeneration of the epidermis and upper dermis occurs via dermal appendages. What previous procedures or medications affect the concentration of dermal... 549
13.What histologic changes do chemical peels cause in the skin? 549
14.Discuss the Glogau classification for photoaging and how treatment strategy changes for each group 549
15.What are alpha-hydroxy acids? 549
16.How do glycolic acid peels compare with standard chemical peels? 550
17.Can the different peeling agents be used in combination? 550
18.What is dermabrasion? 550
19.What are the indications for dermabrasion? 550
20.How do you know how deep to dermabrade? 550
21.How long after dermabrasion does reepithelialization occur? 550
22.Compare the effects of dermabrasion in the perioral area with the effects of phenol 550
23.Should patients undergoing chemical peel or dermabrasion of the perioral area receive acyclovir prophylaxis? 551
24.What is dermasanding? 551
25.What is microdermabrasion? 551
26.What are the indications for microdermabrasion? 551
27.Compare the effects of microdermabrasion with those of dermabrasion and chemical peeling 551
28.What histologic skin changes does microdermabrasion cause? 551
Bibliography 551
Chapter 84:Aesthetic Laser Surgery 552
1.What does the acronym LASER mean? 552
2.What was the predecessor of the laser? 552
3.Who invented the laser? 552
4.What is the visible spectrum of light? 552
5.How is laser light different from other forms of light? 552
6.What is power density and fluence? 552
7.Define pulse width, wavelength, and spot size. What do these have in common? 552
8.How does the laser interact with the skin? 552
9.What is selective photothermolysis and thermal relaxation time? Why are these concepts important in aesthetic laser surger 552
10.What is the difference between an ablative and a nonablative laser? 553
11.What are the wavelengths of lasers commonly used in plastic surgery? 553
12.What is the laser of choice for a port-wine stain? 553
13.What is the mechanism of action of the Q-switched Nd:YAG laser? 553
14.What does Q switched mean, and why is it important? 553
15.What is the Fitzpatrick classification, and why is it important in laser surgery? 553
16.How is the carbon dioxide laser used in aesthetic surgery? 553
17.What is the erbium:YAG laser? 554
18.A patient comes to your office 3 to 6 days after a 120-micron erbium laser facial resurfacing with a perioral, malodorous, pruritic, yellow crusting... 554
19.What is a fractional photothermolysis? 554
20.How do lasers remove hair? 554
21.Will laser hair removal remove all hair in one treatment? 554
22.Why is laser hair removal most successful in the winter? 554
23.What is intense pulsed light? 555
24.What perioperative precautions should be taken in a patient who is to undergo laser resurfacing and has a history of oral herpes infection? 555
25.What happens when patients are pretreated with botulinum toxin prior to laser resurfacing? 555
26.What medication can be applied before laser surgery to improve pain? 555
27.What are the contraindications to facial laser resurfacing? 555
28.How long before reepithelialization occurs after facial resurfacing? 555
29.What are the side effects and complications following laser resurfacing? 555
30.What are common topical treatments recommended or prescribed prior to resurfacing? 556
31.Facial resurfacing should be avoided in patients taking what medication? 556
32.What postoperative dressing is available following laser resurfacing? 556
33.What are the safety issues related to the laser plume? 556
34.What precautions should be taken in the operating room where a laser procedure is being performed? 556
35.Summarize the types of lasers commonly used in plastic surgery 556
Bibliography 558
Chapter 85:Endoscopic Surgery 559
1.Who is credited with the birth of modern endoscopy? 559
2.What technologic advances enabled the rapid proliferation of endoscopic techniques in surgery? 559
3.What is the Hopkins rod endoscope? 559
4.How is endoscopic surgery different in plastic surgery compared with other specialties? 559
5.Which procedures in plastic surgery are commonly performed endoscopically? 559
6.What are the advantages and disadvantages of endoscopic transaxillary breast augmentation? 560
7.Which muscles are responsible for forehead animation? 560
8.The locations of which nerves are important during an endoscopic forehead lift? 560
9.What are the important components of an endoscopic forehead lift? 560
10.Who is the ideal candidate for endoscopic facial rejuvenation? 560
11.What are the advantages and disadvantages of endoscopic surgery versus the traditional or open approach? 561
Bibliography 561
Chapter 86:Augmentation Of The Facial Skeleton 562
1.Why is most augmentation of the facial skeleton done with alloplastic implants instead of autogenous bone? 562
2.How does an implant’s surface characteristics affect the host’s response to the implant? 562
3.What alloplastic implant materials are most commonly used to augment the facial skeleton? 562
4.What areas of the face are most often augmented with implants? 563
5.What surgical approaches are used for placement of malar implants? 563
6.What is the most common complication after placement of a malar implant? 563
7.What are the advantages of wide subperiosteal exposure of the skeletal area to be augmented? 563
8.Why should I consider fixing an implant to the skeleton with a screw? 564
9.What is considered an ideal chin projection relative to the lips? 564
10.How does the inclination of the labiomental angle impact chin augmentation? 564
11.What is the soft tissue response to augmentation of the chin? 564
12.What muscle is most frequently injured during chin implant surgery? 564
13.How would you treat a patient who complains that the silicone chin implant placed several years ago is too large and asymetric? 564
14.Can fat grafts substitute for alloplastic implants to augment the facial skeleton? 564
15.A patient has a large nose and weak chin. In what order should rhinoplasty and chin augmentation with an implant be performed? 565
16.What are common complications after placement of alloplastic facial implants? 565
Bibliography 565
Chapter 87:Aesthetic Orthognathic Surgery 566
1.What is orthognathic surgery? 566
2.What is dental compensation? 566
3.Why is it important to discuss orthodontic camouflage versus surgical treatment prior to initiating orthodontic therapy? 566
4.What is orthodontic decompensation? 566
5.What is the ideal vertical position of the maxilla? 566
6.How does the clinician determine the anteroposterior position of the jaws? 566
7.What is skeletal expansion and why is it important? 566
8.How is a lateral cephalometric radiograph obtained? 567
9.What is the difference between an absolute and relative crossbite? 567
10.Is facial disproportion ever acceptable in facial aesthetics? 568
11.Why is a final splint necessary? 568
12.What is the least stable movement? 568
13.What are the causes of malocclusion after skeletal fixation? 568
14.How is lip length affected by closure of the circumvestibular incision? 568
15.What is the role of alloplastic augmentation in orthognathic surgery? 569
16.When should the nose be addressed in the orthognathic patient? 569
17.What nasal changes are seen after orthognathic surgery? 569
18.How can alar widening be reduced in maxillary surgery? 569
19.What are the soft tissue changes in the upper lip that occur after Le Fort I osteotomy? 569
20.What is the role of genioplasty in orthognathic surgery? 570
21.What is the role of fat grafting? 570
Bibliography 570
Chapter 88:Genioplasty 571
1.What is a genioplasty? 571
2.How do you determine the relationship of the nose to the chin? 571
3.What factors determine sagittal projection of the chin? 571
4.What is the relationship of the soft tissue to hard tissue when the chin is moved? 571
5.What factors determine the vertical position of the chin? 571
6.What factors determine the transverse position of the chin? 571
7.What imaging is necessary prior to osseous genioplasty? 572
8,How does the concept of skeletal expansion apply to the chin? 572
9.When is an osseous genioplasty preferable to a chin implant? 572
10.What are the advantages of alloplastic chin augmentation? 572
11.Where should the incision be placed for a chin implant? 572
12.What potential adverse aesthetic effects are associated with advancement genioplasty? What is a Pharaoh deformity? 572
13.What potential adverse esthetic effects are associated with setback genioplasty? 572
14.How much subperiosteal dissection is recommended to perform an osseous genioplasty? 572
15.Where are the osteotomy cuts made? 573
16.What are the various types of genioplasties? 573
17.What are the potential complications of an osseous genioplasty? 573
18.What are the potential complications of a chin implant? 575
19.What is a witch’s chin deformity? 575
Bibliography 576
Chapter 89: Non-Surgical Rejuvenationof the Aging Face 577
1.According to the American Society of Aesthetic Plastic Surgeons, how many nonsurgical cosmetic procedures were performed in the United States in 2005? 577
2.What are the clinical and histopathologic manifestations of photodamage to the skin? 577
3.What is tretinoin, and how can it be used for facial rejuvenation? 577
4.What is the dosing, application, and safe duration of use of tretinoin? 577
5.What are the side effects, complications, or warnings about tretinoin you should tell your patients? 577
6.What is ascorbic acid, and how is it used for facial rejuvenation? 577
7.What is Botox? 577
8.How does Botox work? 578
9.How was the Botox unit calculated? 578
10.How is Botox reconstituted? 578
11.How long can Botox be used after it has been reconstituted, and how should it be stored? 578
12.What are the contraindications to Botox use? 578
13.What is the most common side effect and complication of Botox injection? 578
14.What type of syringe and anesthetic can be used for Botox injection? 578
15.What are the postinjection instructions to the patient? 578
16.What is the glabellar complex, and what are the recommended Botox dosages to treat this area? 578
17.A new physician asks you to teach a medical student how to inject Botox into the crow’s feet of a patient. What pearls would you give the student to optimize... 579
18.A patient calls your office 24 hours after Botox injection and states that she wants her money back because she sees no effect from the treatment... 579
19.What is hyaluronic acid? 579
20.What are four commonly used Food and Drug Administration–approved hyaluronic acid formulas available in the United States? 579
21.Why is periorbital injection of soft tissue fillers problematic? 579
22.In which layer is periorbital tissue filler placed? 579
23.What are technical considerations for filler injection? 579
24.Can Restylane be used in conjunction with other cosmetic procedures? 579
25.Shortly after Restylane is injected into the nasolabial fold of a 36-year-old healthy woman, her right ala turns blue. Twenty-four hours later a small, painful ulcer develops... 580
26.A palpable and visible lump of recently injected hyaluronic acid has been identified by one of your patients. What is one chemical that you could use to alleviate the problem? 581
27.What is the Tyndall effect, and how is it important in filler placement? 581
28.What is a percutaneous suture meloplication? 581
29.Who are ideal candidates for barbed suture placement? 581
30.What are the long-term effects and complications associated with barbed suture lifting of the face? 581
31.What is microdermabrasion, and how is it used in facial rejuvenation? 581
32.What influences the degree of tissue ablation achieved during microdermabrasion? 581
33.What are the histologic changes following microdermabrasion? 581
34.What is the frequency of microdermabrasion treatments, and what do you tell your patients to expect? 581
Bibliography 582
Section VIII: Trunk and Lower Extremity 583
Chapter 90:Chest Wall Reconstruction 585
1.When do the skeletal components of the chest wall form embryologically? 585
2.What are the muscular layers of the chest wall? 585
3.What are the functions of the chest wall? 586
4.What are the most common indications for chest wall reconstruction? 586
5.What are the principles of chest wall reconstruction? 586
6.What type of tissue is most often used for reconstruction? 586
7.What are the indications for free tissue transfer? 586
8.What options are available for skeletal stabilization? 586
9.What is the incidence of median sternotomy infection? 586
10.What is the significance of sternal wound infections? 586
11.Should serial débridement be performed after sternal wound dehiscence? 586
12.Is there a correlation between use of the internal mammary artery for bypass grafting and the incidence of sternal wound infections? 586
13.How are sternotomy wound infections classified? 587
14.How are median sternotomy wounds reconstructed? 587
15.How can the pectoralis major muscle be used as a “turnover” flap? 587
16.When is the rectus abdominis muscle used? 588
17.Can the rectus abdominis muscle be used when the ipsilateral IMA has been harvested for bypass grafting? 588
18.What role does the greater omentum play? 588
19.What is a sternal cleft? 588
20.Which congenital anomalies are associated with developmental abnormalities of the ribs? 588
21.Which congenital chest wall anomaly is associated with ipsilateral hand deformities? 589
22.What is Poland’s syndrome? 589
23.Do the reconstructive goals differ in females and males with Poland’s syndrome? 589
24.What is pectus excavatum? 589
25.How is pectus excavatum treated? 591
26.What is pectus carinatum? How is it related to pectus excavatum? 591
Bibliography 591
Chapter 91:Abdominal Wall Reconstruction 592
1.What is the functional role of the abdominal wall? 592
2.What are the layers of the abdominal wall? 592
3.What are the origins and insertions of the abdominal wall muscles? 592
4.What are the functions of the abdominal wall muscles? 592
5.What fascial layer lines the entire abdominal wall? 592
6.What is the arterial supply to the abdominal wall? 593
7.Describe the three vascular zones of the abdominal wall 593
8.What are the venous and lymphatic drainages of the abdominal wall? 593
9.What is the motor and sensory innervation to the abdominal wall? 593
10.Describe the mechanism by which an adynamic abdominal wall contributes to lumbosacral pain 594
11.What are the most frequent causes of abdominal wall defects? 594
12.What are important considerations in the evaluation of abdominal wall defects? 594
13.What studies aid in the evaluation of abdominal wall defects? 594
14.How are acquired abdominal wall defects managed? 594
15.What are the reconstructive options? 595
16.What is the “components separation” technique? What size defect can be closed using this technique? 595
17.Describe the concept of staged abdominal reconstruction. 595
18.What is the incidence of incisional hernia formation after laparotomy? What are commonly associated risk factors? 597
19.What suture material and technique are associated with the lowest rate of incisional hernia formation? 597
20.What is the natural history of incisional hernia formation? 597
21.What are the primary goals in abdominal hernia repair? 597
22.What are the criteria for use of synthetic mesh? 597
23.How has the application of mesh affected the surgical approach and outcomes in abdominal hernia repair? 597
24.Describe the experience with prosthetic materials 598
25.What is the clinical course of prosthetic materials capable of incorporation? 598
26.Describe the technique for prosthetic material placement during abdominal wall reconstruction 598
27.What are the advantages and disadvantages of using bioprosthetics in abdominal wall reconstruction? 598
28.What is gas gangrene of the abdominal wall? How do you differentiate it from anaerobic clostridial cellulitis? 598
29.What are the most important congenital defects of the abdominal wall? 599
30.What is an omphalocele? What causes it? 599
31.What is gastroschisis? 599
32.Besides the physical findings of the abdominal wall, what characteristics do patients with gastroschisis have in common? 599
33.How does gastroschisis differ from omphalocele? 600
34.What is the treatment of patients with gastroschisis or omphalocele? 600
35.What is “prune belly” syndrome? 600
36.What are the options for lower abdominal wall reconstruction? 600
37.What are the options for upper abdominal wall reconstruction? 600
38.What is commonly described as the “flap of choice” for abdominal wall reconstruction? 600
39.What is the role of the rectus femoris in abdominal wall reconstruction? 600
40.What is the “mutton chop” flap? 601
41.What is the role of the omentum in abdominal wall reconstruction? 601
42.What is the role of tissue expansion in abdominal wall reconstruction? 601
43.What is the incidence of herniation following TRAM flaps? 601
Bibliography 601
Chapter 92:Reconstruction of the Posterior Trunk 603
1.What are the most common reconstructive problems of the posterior trunk? 603
2.What types of flaps can be used for coverage of posterior trunk defects? 603
3.Describe the principles of wound management prior to reconstructive surgery of the posterior trunk. 603
4.Which factors impact the surgeon’s choice of flap when approaching a posterior trunk defect? 603
5.What are the functional goals of posterior trunk reconstruction? 603
6.In what ways do defects of the posterior trunk differ from those of the anterior chest wall? 603
Anatomyof Posterior Trunk Flaps 603
Regional Approachto Posterior Trunk Defects 606
Spina Bifida 607
Bibliography 607
Chapter 93:Reconstruction of the Lower Extremity 608
1.How does a plastic surgeon become involved in lower extremity reconstruction? 608
2.What types of pathology may require lower extremity reconstruction? 608
3.What are common coverage methods for the thigh? 608
4.What are the alternatives and considerations for soft tissue coverage of the knee? 608
5.What is appropriate soft tissue coverage for the proximal tibia? 608
6.What are appropriate choices of soft tissue coverage of the mid-tibial region? 608
7.What local coverage is available for ankle or distal tibial exposure? 608
8.What factors increase the complication rate for sural flaps? 608
9.What are common coverage methods for wounds of the foot? 609
10.Why are the wounds of the distal leg so problematic for coverage? 609
11.What are the indications for free tissue transfer to cover the distal lower extremity? 609
12.List absolute indications for flap coverage of the lower extremity. 609
13.What are the six angiosomes of the foot and ankle region? 609
14.What is the significance of the angiosome territories? 609
15.What are special considerations for plantar foot coverage? 609
16.What is the most appropriate source of free tissue transfer for coverage of extensive plantar foot defects? 609
17.How can abnormal weight-bearing in the neuropathic foot be corrected? 609
18.What advantage does the VAC device provide for lower extremity wounds? 610
19.Are there any contraindications for the vacuum-assisted closure device in the lower extremity? 610
20.What are the muscle groups and major nerves and arteries of each of the four compartments of the lower leg? 610
21.Why should we invest significant resources to salvage an ulcerated diabetic limb when the patient can just as well have a below-knee amputation and prosthesis? 610
22.What is tarsal tunnel syndrome? What are its clinical findings? How is it treated? 610
23.What is compartment syndrome? 610
24.Is pulselessness a reliable sign of compartment syndrome? 611
25.How is compartment syndrome recognized and treated? 611
26.How are the foot sensory nerves evaluated? 611
27.What are indications for primary amputation in patients with tibial level injury? 611
28.What are the contraindications to salvage of a Gustilo IIIC injury of the lower extremity? 611
29.What are the indications for lower extremity replantation? 611
30.What are absolute contraindications for lower extremity replantation? 612
31.Are there any other considerations for the use of an amputated part? 612
32.In planning flap coverage of the lower extremity, what considerations are involved for concomitant or future bone reconstruction? 612
33.Can bone transport (Ilizarov technique) be done across or through a free flap? 612
34.Why may free flaps fail in the leg? 612
35.How do you determine the zone of injury when preparing recipient vessels? 612
36.Provide an appropriate algorithm for primary operative care of lower extremity trauma. 612
37.Is a muscle or a fasciocutaneous flap better for open fracture treatment? 613
Bibliography 613
Chapter 94:Leg Ulcers 614
1.What are the most common chronic wounds seen in our population? 614
2.How often is ulceration the precursor to amputation? 614
3.What is the differential diagnosis of leg ulcers? 614
4.How do you evaluate a patient who presents with leg ulcers? 615
5.What are the goals of leg ulcer treatment? 615
6.What is the most common cause of leg ulceration? 615
7.What is venous hypertension? 615
8.What causes venous hypertension? 615
9.How do you diagnose venous hypertension? 615
10.Name the major veins of the leg. 616
11.Describe the anatomy of the veins of the leg 616
12.What are perforating veins? 616
13.What is the difference between “primary” and “secondary” chronic venous disorders? 616
14.What are varicose veins? 616
15.What is a varicose ulcer? 616
16.What are the etiology and pathogenesis of venous ulcers? 616
17.Describe the role of inflammation in the development and perpetuation of chronic venous ulcers. 616
18.Where are venous ulcers located? 617
19.Describe conservative management of venous ulcers. 617
20.What is an Unna boot? 617
21.How does an Unna boot work? 617
22.Describe the surgical management of venous ulcers 617
23.What is a Linton flap? 617
24.Who should get a skin graft for a venous leg ulcer? 617
25.What are the goals for long-term cure of recalcitrant venous ulcers? 617
26.What is the role of free tissue transfer in the management of venous ulcers? 617
27.Who should get a free flap for a venous leg ulcer? 618
28.What kind of free flap is best for a venous ulcer? 618
29.What intrinsic role does the flap tissue play in treatment of venous ulcers? 618
30.How does one approach the patient with mixed arterial and venous ulcers? 618
31.What is the CEAP classification? 618
32.How is the CEAP classification used? 618
33.What are the relationships among ulceration, diabetes, arterial occlusive disease, and amputation? 618
34.What is the etiopathogenesis of diabetic foot ulcers? 619
35.Discuss two common misconceptions about diabetic foot infections 619
36.What is the fate of the contralateral foot in diabetics? 620
37.What is the diabetic Charcot foot? 620
38.Describe the status of the arterial system in diabetics. 620
39.Describe considerations in the surgical management of diabetic patients with a leg or foot ulcer. 620
40.Describe the management of plantar forefoot ulcers 620
41.Describe the management of plantar midfoot ulcers 621
42.Describe the management of hindfoot (heel) ulcers 621
43.How are multiple tarsal and metatarsal ulcers managed? 621
44.What methods are used to prevent foot ulcers? 621
45.What is the bacteriology of lower extremity infections? 621
46.What are the basic rules for treating any lower extremity infection? 621
47.What is the role of the vascular surgeon and plastic surgeon in salvage of the diabetic foot? 621
48.Describe the rehabilitation team for the diabetic foot 622
49.Describe the nature of sickle cell ulcers 622
50.What role does skin grafting play in the management of sickle cell ulcers? 622
51.What other reconstructive options are available for patients with homozygous sickle cell disease? 622
52.What is the role of free tissue transfer for limb salvage in patients with homozygous sickle cell disease? 622
53.Is there any evidence to support vacuum-assisted closure in the treatment of chronic leg ulcers? 622
Bibliography 623
Chapter 95:Pressure Sores 624
1.What is the pathophysiology of pressure ulcers? 624
2.What are the Braden scale and the Norton scale? 624
3.What are the primary risk factors for developing pressure ulcers in chair-bound people or people with impaired ability to reposition? 624
4.Which areas of the body are more prone to pressure ulcerations? 624
5.What is the staging system for pressure sores? 624
6.In patients with spinal cord injury, what is the pathophysiology of lower extremity spasms? 624
7.How do you manage spasticity in paraplegic patients? 624
8.What is the best modality for evaluation of pelvic osteomyelitis in patients with pressure sores? 625
9.What other tests are helpful in establishing the diagnosis of pelvic osteomyelitis? 625
10.What is the treatment for pelvic osteomyelitis? 625
11.How does vacuum-assisted closure assist in pressure sore care? 625
12.How does the collection of third-space fluid interfere with wound healing? 625
13.List the surgical steps for pressure sore closure 625
14.What is the blood supply to the gluteus maximus muscle? 625
15.What are the various designs for the gluteus maximus musculocutaneous flap? 625
16.What is the innervation of the gluteus maximus muscle? Can the gluteus maximus flap be used in nonparaplegic patients without functional deficit? 625
17.What are the advantages of the gluteal perforator flap versus the classic gluteus maximus design? 625
18.Which are the most significant anatomical considerations for the gluteal perforator flap? 626
19.Which are the most significant technical considerations for the gluteal perforator flap? 626
20.What is the blood supply to the gracilis musculocutaneous flap? 626
21.What is the blood supply of the lumbosacral back flap? What are its applications? 626
22.What is the blood supply to the vastus lateralis muscle? 626
23.What is the blood supply to the rectus femoris muscle? 626
24.What is the blood supply to the gluteal thigh flap? 626
25.What is the blood supply to the tensor fascia lata flap? 626
26.Describe the surgical anatomy and applications of the posteromedial thigh fasciocutaneous flap. 626
27.Which flap can be used to cover perineal pressure sores? 627
28.When is a total thigh flap recommended? 627
29.What measures does a successful total thigh flap include? 627
30.Which are the indications and technical consideration for use of the rectus abdominis musculocutaneous flap in patients with pressure sores? 627
31.What are the advantages of close collaboration between the plastic surgery and rehabilitation medicine services in the treatment of pressure sores? 627
Bibliography 627
Chapter 96:Lymphedema 628
1.What are lymphatics? 628
2.Describe the anatomy of the lymphatic system. 628
3.Are lymphatics present throughout the body? 628
4.What are the functions of the lymphatic system? 628
5.What is lymphedema? 628
6.Does lymphedema affect the superficial, deep, or both areas of the extremity? 629
7.Classify lymphedema 629
8.Describe the epidemiology of lymphedema 629
9.What is the differential diagnosis of lymphedema? 629
10.How do you diagnose lymphedema? 629
11.How do you measure the severity of lymphedema and follow treatment response? 630
12.What is the best imaging modality to confirm the diagnosis of lymphedema? 630
13.What are the complications of lymphedema? 630
14.How do you manage cellulitis in a lymphedematous extremity? 631
15.What is the first-line treatment of symptomatic lymphedema? 631
16.How does pressure reduce limb volume? 631
17.What are the indications for surgical treatment of lymphedema? 631
18.Describe the surgical treatment options for lymphedema 631
19.List the types of physiologic procedures that have been described for the treatment of lymphedema 631
20.List the types of excisional procedures that have been described 632
21.What are the benefits of suction-assisted lipectomy compared with staged subcutaneous excision? 632
22.Is suction-assisted lipectomy effective for treatment of lower extremity lymphedema? 632
23.What is the mechanism of liposuction edema reduction? 632
24.Is circumferential suctioning of the extremity safe? 632
Controversies 632
Bibliography 633
Chapter 97:Reconstruction of the Genitalia 634
1.Describe the anatomy of the penis, including the fascial layers 634
2.Name the origin and branches of the common penile artery 634
3.What is the role of testosterone in genital development? 634
4.Describe the common features of hypospadias. 634
5.Where is the most common location of the meatus in hypospadias? The least common? 634
6.What are the goals and components of hypospadias repair? 634
7.Describe the distribution of the dorsal nerves to the penis. Why is it important to consider in surgical techniques for the correction of congenital penile curvature? 635
8.What are the causes of chordee? 635
9.What are the two most common complications of a hypospadias repair? 635
10.Should you look for other congenital anomalies in a patient with hypospadias? 635
11.What are the classic features of the exstrophy/epispadias complex? 635
12.How does exstrophy occur? 635
13.What are the goals of extrophy reconstruction? 635
14.What is the most common cause of ambiguous genitalia? What is the most common enzyme abnormality? 635
15.List the categories of ambiguous genitalia. 635
16.What considerations contribute to gender assignment? 636
17.What are the anatomic divisions of the urethra? 636
18.Name three causes of urethral stricture disease 636
19.What studies are involved in the preoperative evaluation of urethral stricture? 636
20.What tissues are available for reconstruction of the urethra? 636
21.Who was Peyronie? 636
22.What is the cause of Peyronie’s disease? What is the most commonly associated physical finding other than penile curvature? 636
23.If a patient presents with significant penile curvature, what are the important considerations for recommending treatment? 636
24.What materials or tissues have been used in plaque incision or excision and grafting? 636
25.What additional procedure should be considered in patients with erectile dysfunction and Peyronie’s disease? 637
26.After exploration to determine the extent of the injury, how should you manage a degloving injury to the penis? 637
27.What is Fournier’s gangrene? 637
28.What is the most common technique for penile reconstruction and phallic construction? 637
29.What are the options for construction of a vagina? 637
Bibliography 637
Section IX: Burns 639
Chapter 98: Thermal Burns 641
1.List three functions of the skin that are lost when thermal injury occurs. What are the consequences? 641
2.What is the incidence of burn injury in the United States? 641
3.What are the criteria for referring a patient to a specialized burn center? 641
4.What are the immediate concerns about the airway of patients with a thermal injury? 641
5.What three factors suggest an inhalation injury? 641
6.What diagnostic measures can be used to confirm inhalation injury? 641
7.What are the concerns in transporting a burn victim from a community hospital to a specialized burn center? 641
8.How is inhalation injury managed acutely? 642
9.When are prophylactic antibiotics and/or steroids indicated for inhalation injury? 642
10.Describe the resuscitation of thermally injured patients 642
11.Describe the initial resuscitation of a child with burn injuries 642
12.How is the size of the burn estimated? 642
13.How is the depth of the wound classified? 642
14.Describe the management of burn wounds involving the extremities 642
15.Why is pain control important in burn patients? 643
16.What is burn wound anemia? 643
17.What are the various options available for managing the partial-thickness burn wound? 643
19.How and when is a skin graft done? 644
20.What are the reasons for graft failure? 644
21.What is a meshed graft versus a sheet graft? 644
22.What is Integra artificial skin? When should it be used? 644
23.How are thermal injuries to the perineum and genitalia managed? 644
24.Describe the management of foot burns. 645
25.How is wound healing affected by the aging process? 645
26.Why is nutrition important in the burn patient, and how are nutritional requirements determined? 645
Bibliography 645
Chapter 99: Electrical Injuries 646
1.What is an electrical injury? 646
2.How common are electrical injuries in the United States? 646
3.What are the mechanisms for electrical injury? 646
4.Why is the term “electrical burn” imprecise? 646
5.To what does the term “entrance and exit points” refer? 646
6.What is the voltage of typical wall outlets in the home? 646
7.Describe how to calculate the current that a victim might be exposed to during an electrical injury 646
8.What is the minimum voltage necessary for soft tissue injury? 647
9.Describe the common modes of exposure to damaging electric fields 647
10.How are electrical injuries classified? 647
11.What additional portions of the history, as they relate to the electrical exposure, must be explored? 647
12.What laboratory studies are appropriate at the time of admission? 648
13.What are the findings of compartment syndromes in the extremities, and when is treatment appropriate? 648
14.What is the role of magnetic resonance imaging in the identification of compromised, electrically injured tissue? 648
15.How are fluid requirements calculated in electrical injury resuscitation? 648
16.What is the significance of myoglobinuria? 648
17.How are hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria diagnosed and treated? 648
18.In the midst of a lightning storm, describe the safest location to avoid lightning injuries. 648
19.Can victims of electrical injury develop delayed neurologic sequelae? 649
20.What advice would you give the parents of a child with an electrical injury of the oral commissure? 649
21.What are the ocular manifestations of electrical injury, and what is the most common of these? 649
22.Describe neuropsychological changes following electrical injury 649
Bibliography 649
Chapter 100: Chemical Injuries 650
1. Why is the management of chemical injuries important? 650
2. What common items are associated with chemical injuries? 650
3. Which substances can cause more tissue destruction: Acids or alkalis? 650
4. What are some systemic effects associated with chemical injuries? 650
5. What are the criteria for hospital admission of patients with chemical burns? 650
6. How do you acutely treat a chemical burn victim? 650
7. How long should you irrigate a chemical burn wound? 650
8. What are common pitfalls in treating chemical injuries? 651
9. What is the difference between thermal and chemical burns? 651
10. Describe the nature and appearance of acid burns 652
11. What is hydrofluoric acid? 652
12. Why are hydrofluoric acid burns so severe? 652
13. What is the first sign of hypocalcemia after a hydrofluoric acid burn? 652
14. What are the signs of acute systemic fluoride toxicity? 652
15. How do you treat a hydrofluoric acid burn? 652
16. What substances account for the majority of alkali burns? 652
17. What type of alkali injuries merit special attention? 652
18. How does cement cause a chemical burn? 653
19. What is a boot-cuff burn injury? 653
20. What chemical burns should never be treated with water irrigation? 653
21. How do you treat these burning metals? 653
22. How are tar and grease best removed? 653
23. What chemical burn has the characteristic smell of garlic? 653
24. What is white phosphorous? 653
25. How do you treat a white phosphorous burn? 653
26. What metabolic and systemic complications are associated with white phosphorous burns? 653
27. What chemical injury is treated with polyethylene glycol (antifreeze)? 653
28. What is phenol? 653
29. How quickly can systemic phenol toxicity manifest itself? 654
30. How do you treat phenol injuries? 654
31. What chemical injury is often accompanied with frostbite? 654
Bibliography 654
Chapter 101: Frostbite 655
1. What are the three common types of cold injury? 655
2. What is frostbite? 655
3. What is chilblain (pernio)? 655
4. What is trenchfoot? 655
5. What are the symptoms of trenchfoot? 655
6. What is cold urticaria? 655
7. What predisposing risk factors contribute to frostbite? 655
8. How is frostbite classified? 655
9. What is the pathophysiology of frostbite? 655
10. What vascular changes occur with frostbite? 657
11. What immunogenic factors play a role in frostbite? 657
12. How is frostbite treated? 657
13. What is the role of surgery in the treatment of frostbite? 657
14. What is the role of hyperbaric oxygen in the treatment of frostbite? 657
15. What other diagnostic modalities are used in determining the extent of frostbite? 657
16. Is any adjuvant therapy useful in the treatment of frostbite? 657
17. What are the late sequelae of frostbite? 658
Bibliography 658
Chapter 102: Metabolism and Nutrition 659
1. What are the daily requirements of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins? 659
2. What methods are used to determine a patient’s daily caloric requirement? 659
3. How is protein synthesis hormonally regulated? 659
4. How does stress or injury alter metabolism? 659
5. What is the effect of stress or injury on blood sugar levels? 659
6. What is gluconeogenesis? 659
7. What is the effect of insulin therapy in critically ill patients? 659
8. List several host factors that can impair wound healing 660
9. What is the effect of protein malnutrition on wound healing? 660
10. How is a malnourished patient identified? 660
11. Which are the best indicators of overall nutritional status? 660
12. What are signs of malnutrition that can be identified on physical examination? 660
13. Which serum proteins are used to assess a patient’s nutritional status? 660
14. Which comorbid conditions can lead to decreased levels of nutritional indexes irrespective of a patient’s nutritional state? 660
15. Describe several adverse consequences of malnutrition in a surgical patient 660
16. How soon after surgery or trauma should exogenous nutritional supplementation be initiated? 660
17. What deleterious effects have been attributed to total parenteral nutrition versus enteral nutrition? 660
18. What is immunonutrition? 660
19. Name several proposed immunonutrients and their theorized modes of action. 661
20. What benefits have been identified using immunonutrition? 661
21. What effects does the oxygen tension have on wound healing? 661
22. What is the hypermetabolic response to burn injury? 661
23. What are the responsible mediators? 661
24. How can the hypermetabolic response to burns be blunted? 661
25. When does the metabolic rate return to normal? 661
26. Describe burn wound resuscitation. 661
27. What effect does insulin therapy have on the immune response to burn? 661
28. What effect does oxandrolone have on the immune response to burn? 662
bibliography 662
Chapter 103: Burn Reconstruction 663
1. What are the general principles of burn rehabilitation? 663
2. Is a burn scar unique? 663
3. What is the primary goal of burn rehabilitation? 664
4. Why do burn scars contract? 664
5. How do you prevent burn scar formation? 664
6. How do you prevent burn scar contracture? 664
7. What are the best ways to treat burn scar contracture? 665
8. What does burn rehabilitation include, and when does it begin? 666
9. What are the differences between scald, flame, and electrical injuries in terms of the care needed after the injury heals? 666
10. What are compression dressings and how are they used? What are compression garments? 666
11. How do compression garments work? 667
12. What is the role of silicone? 667
13. Who developed the use of compression? 667
14. Is there any advantage to early burn wound surgical intervention? 667
15. Which anatomic sites should take precedence in burn reconstruction, even in the earliest phases of burn care? 667
16. When was the first recorded treatment of a burn? What was the recommended treatment plan? 667
17. What are the most common complaints that burn survivors have? 668
18. What are the delayed wound complications associated with burn injury? 668
19. What is heterotopic calcification? 668
20. What are the most common burn contracture deformities and how may they be prevented or minimized? 668
21. What is microstomia? 668
22. How do neck contractures affect function, and how are they treated? 669
23. How long after surgery for burn scar reconstruction is it possible to begin scar management? 669
24. What are the appropriate grafts for burned hand reconstruction (Fig. 103-6)? 669
25. What underlying pathology results in an intrinsic minus hand in the recently burned upper extremity, and how should it be treated? 669
26. What are escharotomies, and what do they do? 669
27. What are the clinical signs of ischemia in a circumferentially burned extremity? 670
28. When does the need for an escharotomy first appear? 670
29. Spill scalds of the chest are common in toddlers. What are the long-term consequences? 670
30. What is burn alopecia, and how is it treated? 670
31. What are the long-term consequences of burn scars 20 years or more after a burn injury? 670
32. What are the long-term consequences of lightning injuries? 671
Controversies 671
Bibliography 671
Section X: Tissue Transplantation 673
Chapter 104: Principles of Skin Grafts 675
1. Who performed the first skin graft? 675
2. What are the different types of skin grafts? 675
3. What are the advantages and disadvantages of STSG versus FTSG? 675
4. Which epithelial appendages are present in the skin? 675
5. How do hair follicles and sebaceous glands affect skin grafts? 675
6. How do sweat glands affect skin grafts? 676
7. What happens to the epidermis in the postgraft period? 676
8. Describe the cellular and fibrous components of the dermis in skin grafts. 676
9. What is the function of the extracellular matrix? 676
10. Describe the healing process of a skin graft. 676
11. How does a skin graft take? 676
12. What are the most common causes of autologous skin graft failure? 677
13. What sensory changes occur as a skin graft becomes reinnervated? 677
14. What are the choices for donor sites? 677
15. What is a dermatome? 677
16. What is meshing? When are meshed grafts used? 677
17. What are the advantages and disadvantages of meshing? 677
Advantages 677
Disadvantages 677
18. What methods of graft expansion are available besides meshing? 678
19. Compare primary and secondary contraction. 678
20. What factors in the wound bed promote skin graft take? 678
21. What is the optimal dressing for a skin graft? 678
22. How can skin graft pigmentation mismatch be minimized? When does hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentation occur? 678
23. What types of dressings are used for donor sites? 678
24. How many times can a split-thickness graft be harvested from the same site? 679
25. What is dermal overgrafting? 679
26. Compare allografts and xenografts. 679
27. What other effective temporary biologic dressings exist as a bridge to autografting in patients with extensive burns (total body surface area >50%)? 679
28. What is tissue-cultured skin? 680
29. What are unilaminar and bilaminar skin substitutes? 680
30. What are the applications of fibrin glue in skin grafting? 680
31. What is a free dermal-fat graft? 680
32. What is the role of skin grafting in the treatment of vitiligo? 680
Bibliography 680
Chapter 105: Principles of Skin Flap Surgery 682
1. How do main distributing arteries reach the cutaneous circulation of a flap? 682
2. What are the three main characteristics of skin-containing flaps? 682
3. Classify skin-containing flaps in terms of their composition. 682
4. Classify skin-containing flaps in terms of their blood supply (Fig. 105-1). 682
5. Classify skin-containing flaps in terms of their method of movement (Fig. 105-2). 683
6. Classify the following flaps according to their three major characteristics. 683
7. In what year did plastic surgeons successfully introduce free tissue transfer as a reconstructive option? What type of procedure was performed? 683
8. What is an angiosome? What is its significance in flap design? 683
9. What is the “delay procedure”? What is the “delay phenomenon”? 684
10. What does the term critical ischemia time mean? 684
11. What is primary versus secondary ischemia? 684
12. What does the term ischemia–reperfusion injury mean? 684
13. What mechanisms may lead to the failure of a pedicled flap? A free flap? 685
14. How can you optimize the viability of a pedicled flap? 685
15. What methods are used to monitor the viability of a free flap that contains a cutaneous component? 685
Bibliography 685
Chapter 106: Principles of Fascia and Fasciocutaneous Flaps 686
1. What exactly is a fasciocutaneous flap? 686
Basic Anatomy 686
2. Describe the vascular contributions to the “fascial plexus.” 686
3. Where are “fascial feeders” found? 686
4. What are the six patterns of perforators of the deep fascia that can each supply adistinct type of fasciocutaneous flap? 686
5. Are direct septocutaneous vessels and septocutaneous perforators actuallydifferent? 687
6. The dorsal thoracic fascia is synonymous with the territory of what fasciocutaneousflaps? 687
7. Is a “muscle” perforator flap just a type of fasciocutaneous flap? 687
8. Simplify the stratification of the types of deep fascial perforators as being either“direct” or “indirect” perforators. 687
9. What role does the deep fascia have in most fasciocutaneous flaps? 687
10. Can a fasciocutaneous flap be neither fascial nor cutaneous? 687
11. Describe the composition of the subcutaneous flap and the adipofascial flap. 687
12. Define the three subtypes of fasciocutaneous flaps using either the Cormack-Lamberty or Nahai-Mathes schema. 687
13. In what body regions do direct fascial perforators predominate when compared withmusculocutaneous perforators? 688
Basic Physiology 688
14. Explain how the axis determines the proper orientation for designing afasciocutaneous flap. 688
15. How can the maximum potential length of a fasciocutaneous flapbe estimated? 688
16. What is the point of rotation of a fasciocutaneous flap? 688
17. What is the arc of rotation of a fasciocutaneous flap? 688
18. Who is Pontén, and what are his “superflaps”? 689
19. Define a distal-based fasciocutaneous flap. Why is it more dependable than itsmuscle flap counterpart? 689
20. State the primary advantage of a distal-based fasciocutaneous flap. 689
21. Are distal-based fasciocutaneous flaps and retrograde flow-flaps thesame entity? 689
22. How does venous regurgitation occur in a retrograde flow flap? 689
23. How is Allen’s test relevant to the Chinese flap? 689
24. What is the superficial ulnar artery trap? 689
Applied Anatomy 690
25. Why has the radial forearm flap fallen into disrepute in some quartersof the world? 690
26. What is the Becker flap? 690
27. Why has the groin flap fallen into disfavor? 690
28. The importance of the triangular space of the thorax is because what direct fascialperforator emanates through it? 690
29. Name the muscles that define the boundaries of the triangular space. 690
30. What important structures pass through the quadrilateral space to form theneurovascular pedicle for a sensate upper arm fasciocutaneous flap? 691
31. Name the structures that define the boundaries of the quadrilateral space. 691
32. Perhaps the most notorious liability of the fasciocutaneous flap is the riskof morbidity at the donor site, especially if a skin graft has been requiredfor closure. Describe at least three ways in which this specific risk can beminimized. 691
33. Name some advantages of fasciocutaneous flaps when compared withmuscle flaps. 691
34. Identify the source vessel and type of perforator in these 10 commonly used fasciaflaps. 691
Bibliography 693
Chapter 107: Principles of Muscle and Musculocutaneous Flaps 695
Basic Anatomy 695
1. Why can a muscle be used as a flap? 695
2. Where do the vascular pedicles enter a muscle? 695
3. Differentiate the terms “dominant,” “minor,” and “segmental” in reference to thevascular pedicle of a muscle. 695
4. What is the importance of a “secondary segmental” vascular pedicle? 695
5. Classify muscle flaps according to their source of vascular supply. 695
6. If based on vascular pedicle type only, which muscles would be the most and whichthe least versatile for use as a flap? 695
7. Classify muscle flaps according to their mode of innervation. 696
8. Identify the most common vascular pattern for muscles. 696
Basic Physiology 696
9. According to their vascular pattern, which muscle types would be the most or theleast reliable as a flap? 696
10. Define the standard arc of rotation of a muscle flap. 696
11. In contrast, what is the arc of rotation of a “reverse” muscle flap? 697
12. Explain the concept of function preservation when using a muscle flap. 697
13. How are the arterial territories linked within a muscle that has multiple vascularpedicles? 697
14. What is the relationship of veins to the corresponding arteries found in muscles? 697
15. How are venous territories linked together within a given muscle? 697
Musculocutaneous Flap Physiology 697
16. How do myocutaneous flaps differ from musculocutaneous flaps? 697
17. Describe how the skin paddle of a musculocutaneous flap normally obtains its bloodsupply. 697
18. Why is the muscle considered only a passive carrier of the skin in a compositemusculocutaneous flap? 697
19. Can any skin configuration overlying a muscle be expected to survive as amusculocutaneous flap? 697
20. Are there nonoperative modalities to assist the preoperative identification ofmusculocutaneous perforators to ensure their inclusion? 698
21. List several methods to maximize viability of the skin paddle of amusculocutaneous flap. 698
22. It has been postulated that the “delay” of a musculocutaneous flap is best achievedby the alteration of its venous physiology by what mechanism? 698
23. Does neovascularization occur more rapidly in a muscle or musculocutaneous flap toallow pedicle independence? 698
Applied Anatomy 698
24. What are the advantages of muscle flaps when compared with cutaneous flaps? 698
25. Although never a concern with cutaneous flaps, what is the greatest liability if usinga muscle flap? 698
26. Why are muscle flaps infrequently used for coverage in the upper extremity? 698
27. Name the two “workhorse” muscle flaps of the leg and state their correspondingrange. 699
28. Which of the two heads of the gastrocnemius muscle has the longer reach? 699
29. What two important structures help to demarcate the two heads of thegastrocnemius muscles? 699
30. The internal oblique muscle has what in common with the pectoralis major andlatissimus dorsi muscles? 699
31. Describe two ways the pectoralis major muscle can be transposed to coversternal defects. 699
32. From the schematic (see Fig. 107-3), name the source vessel(s) and correspondingmuscle type based on blood supply of these 10 commonly used muscle flaps. 699
Bibliography 700
Chapter 108: Principles of Perforator Flaps 702
Basic Anatomy 702
1. Define “perforator.” 702
2. How do direct and indirect “perforators” differ? 702
3. Where is the “fascial plexus”? 702
4. What is a “mother” vessel? 702
5. What is a “perforator flap”? 702
6. What is a “true” perforator flap? 703
7. Could muscle perforator flaps be considered a form of fasciocutaneous flap? 703
8. Name different types of indirect perforator flaps. 703
9. Must all perforator flaps be cutaneous flaps? 703
10. Does the deep fascia have to be included with a perforator flap? 703
11. In what body regions do musculocutaneous perforators practical formuscle perforator flaps predominate compared with direct perforators of thedeep fascia? 704
12. Describe the course of the perforator veins. 704
13. List some methods that allow preoperative identification of perforators. 704
14. While thinning perforator flaps, Kimura found what three different branchingpatterns of musculocutaneous perforators through the subcutaneous tissues in theircourse to the subdermal plexus? 704
15. Do different donor sites have predictable suprafascial branching patterns ofperforators? 704
Basic Physiology 704
16. When exploring the potential vessels for a perforator flap, what is the smallest sizethat should be chosen? 704
17. Although a single perforator could sustain an entire flap, state some goodreasons to include more. 705
18. How can the potential territory of a perforator flap be estimated? 705
19. What is the point of rotation of a perforator flap? 705
20. Describe the arc of rotation of a local perforator flap. 705
21. How can the arc of rotation of a local perforator flap be increased? 705
22. How can venous congestion in a perforator flap be aborted? 705
23. Is the immediate thinning of a perforator flap hazardous? 705
Muscle Perforator Flaps 705
24. Describe the nomenclature for muscle perforator flaps. 705
25. Based on the aforementioned four nomenclature systems for muscle perforatorflaps, label a flap from the anterolateral thigh if based on a lateral circumflexfemoral (LCF) perforator of the vastus lateralis muscle. 705
26. Based on the aforementioned four nomenclature systems for muscle perforatorflaps, label a flap if based on a superior epigastric (SE) perforator of the rectusabdominis muscle. 706
27. Does a muscle perforator flap capture the same territory as its correspondingmusculocutaneous flap? 706
28. List the source vessels for the muscle perforator flaps identified here by thecorresponding muscle (Fig. 108-3): 706
Nonmuscle Perforator Flaps 707
29. Explain the basis of circulation to a neurocutaneous flap. 707
30. What is the axis of a neurocutaneous flap? 707
31. Why were Pontén’s so-called “superflaps” so robust? 707
32. What landmarks can be used to ensure the appropriate orientation of aneurocutaneous flap in the extremities? 707
Supermicrosurgery 707
33. Define “supermicrosurgery.” 707
34. What is Koshima’s perforator-based flap? 707
35. Describe how to design a “free-style” local or free flap. 707
36. How does “microdissection” more safely allow reduction of the thickness of aperforator flap? 707
37. What is a “subdermal vascular network” flap? 707
Bibliography 708
Chapter 109: Principles of Microvascular FreeTissue Transfer 710
1. What is a microvascular free tissue transfer? 710
2. What are the indications for a microvascular free tissue transfer? 710
3. What are the success rates of microsurgically transplanted tissues? 710
4. Which donor tissue should be chosen? 710
5. Who should perform microsurgery? 710
6. What role do anticoagulants play in microsurgery? 710
7. What is the no-reflow phenomenon? 710
8. What methods can be used to minimize ischemia? 711
9. Which is more successful, end-to-end or end-to-side arterial anastomosis? 711
10. From where do you obtain vein grafts? 711
11. What benefit do coupled anastomoses have? 711
12. How can you tell if a flap is failing? 711
13. What factors lead to free flap failure? 711
14. How long before new endothelium covers the anastomosis site? 711
15. What are some methods to relieve spasm? 712
16. What is the order of vessel repair in a free flap? Artery or vein first? 712
17. Should both arterial and venous repairs be completed before clamps are removed and flow is reestablished? 712
18. Does smoking increase the risk of free flap failure? 712
19. Name several options for skin/fasciocutaneous flap reconstruction. 712
20. Name several free muscle flaps. Which muscles can be transplanted as functional muscles? 712
21. Name several perforator flaps. 712
22. Name several osseous flaps. 713
23. Are there any other types of free flaps? 713
24. What are chimeric flaps? 713
25. Which free flaps are used for facial reanimation? 713
Controversies 713
Bibliography 714
Chapter 110: Free Flap Donor Sites 715
1. What is a composite free flap? 715
2. What is the quadrangle space? Which structures traverse it? 715
3. What is the triangular space? Which structures traverse it? 715
4. Describe the Mathes and Nahai classification of muscle circulation and list examples of muscles used for free transfers from each group. 715
5. What are the advantages and disadvantages of including a skin paddle with a muscle flap? 716
6. Which muscles are suitable for facial reanimation because of their size and segmental innervation? 716
7. Name a reliable donor muscle for coverage of large defects. 716
8. Name four muscles that are appropriate for functional free transfers. 716
9. What are the uses and advantages of the gracilis flap? 716
10. Which portions of the serratus anterior muscle can be safely harvested without risk of inducing winging of the scapula? 716
11. What sensory deficit may result from injudicious harvest of the lateral gastrocnemius muscle? 716
12. Describe one of the primary uses of the pectoralis minor flap. 716
13. List 10 sensate cutaneous flaps and their innervation. 716
14. What are the advantages of the anterolateral thigh free flap? 717
15. What are the advantages of using the medial forearm flap in reconstruction of the face or hand? 717
16. Under what circumstances can donor site appearance be improved in use of the cutaneous lateral arm flap? 717
17. What are the limitations of one of the earliest free flaps, the groin flap? 717
18. What are the two most commonly used vascularized free bone flaps? What are their advantages and disadvantages? 717
19. With which pedicles can the iliac crest osteocutaneous flap be harvested? 717
20. What morbidity is associated with harvest of the vascularized free iliac crest bone flap? 717
21. What are the advantages of using the great toe for thumb reconstruction? 717
22. What is the most commonly used free fascial flap? What are its advantages and disadvantages? 717
23. Is patient positioning important when considering an appropriate donor site? 718
24. What methods are used for closing donor site defects following flap harvest? 718
Bibliography 718
Chapter 111: Leeches 719
1. What are leeches? Sneeches? 719
2. How long have leeches been used in medicine? 719
3. How long have leeches been used in plastic surgery? 719
4. What are the indications for using leeches? 719
5. What are the signs of arterial occlusion versus venous occlusion? 719
6. How do leeches work? 719
7. What are the possible complications of using leeches? What precautions are necessary? 720
8. How are leeches administered? 720
9. How many leeches should you use? 720
10. Where do you get leeches in the middle of the night? 721
Bibliography 721
Chapter 112: Principles of Facial Transplantation 722
1. What are the functions of the face? 722
2. What are the established techniques for repairing the human face? 722
3. Can you estimate the size of the skin needed to cover an entire face, scalp, front of neck, and ears? 722
4. What types of face allotransplantations have been defined thus far? 722
5. Name the current surgical and technical protocols of face allotransplantation? 722
6. What are the goals of performing a face allotransplantation procedure? 723
7. Which vessels are used for vascularization of the face allotransplant? 723
8. Which nerves should be included in a facial/scalp allotransplant? 723
9. Organ transplantations are commonly performed all over the world. Is there any difference between these transplantations and face transplantation? 723
10. The face allograft includes diverse tissues such as skin, muscle, tendon, nerve, bone, and vessels. Which of these tissues express the highest antigenicity? 723
11. What is the current immunosuppressive protocol used in the face allotransplantation? 723
12. What methods are used to evaluate the signs of face allograft rejection? 723
13. What are the earliest clinical signs of rejection seen in face allotransplantation? 723
14. Describe the types of rejection of allograft transplants. 724
15. What are the major causes of sensitization of the recipient facilitating the hyperacute/accelerated rejection? 724
16. What is the treatment of choice when signs of rejection are present? 724
17. What is the treatment of choice in acute rejection, if the initial treatment fails? 724
18. What is the treatment of choice for chronic rejection? 724
19. What is the estimated risk of acute and chronic face allotransplant rejection? 724
20. What are the long-term side effects of the immunosuppressants used in facial allotransplantation? 724
21. What factors influence the success rate of a face allotransplantation? 724
22. What would be the fate of the patient if the face allograft is lost? 725
23. What are the pretransplant assessments of candidates for facial allotransplantation? 725
24. What should be included in the informed consent for candidates for facial allotransplantation? 725
25. What are the next steps in the recovery of the patient who has undergone facial allotransplantation surgery? 725
Bibliography 725
Chapter 113: Principles of Hand Transplantation 727
1. What is the first comprehensive account of upper extremity transplantation? 727
2. Who performed the first hand transplantation under immunosuppression? 727
3. Which team performed the second hand transplant in history? 727
4. How many hand transplants have been performed around the world? 727
5. The longest surviving hand transplant belongs to which patient? 727
6. What is the overall graft and patient survival in recipients on immunosuppressive therapy? 727
7. Explain the terms “induction” therapy and “maintenance” therapy. 727
8. If the “ideal” immunosuppressive drug was available, how would you describe it? 727
9. Define the term “acute” rejection. How is it classified or scored? 728
10. Explain the importance of the human leukocyte antigen transplant rejection. 728
11. Why is prior “sensitization” of recipients to donor HLA antigens a problem in hand transplantation? 730
12. How is presence of anti-HLA antibodies measured, and what is their significance? 730
13. Describe the phenomenon of “chronic” rejection. 730
14. What are some immunologic and nonimmunologic factors that play a role in the etiopathogenesis of CR? 730
15. Have any hand transplants been lost to rejection? 730
16. How is the term “chimerism” defined? What is the difference between microchimerism and macrochimerism? 730
17. Have any hand transplant recipients thus far shown evidence of chimerism? What about graft-versus-host disease? 731
18. List the specific criteria that are used to select donors and recipients for hand transplantation. 731
19. What is the International Registry of Hand and Composite Tissue Transplantation? 731
20. Describe the effects of tacrolimus on nerve regeneration. 731
21. In the United States, retrieval of donor organs/tissues is managed and controlled by OPOs. What does this acronym refer to? 731
22. Describe the phenomenon of “brain plasticity” that has been observed after hand transplantation. 731
23. How is hand transplantation different from replantation? What distinguishes it from solid organ transplants? 731
24. Briefly describe the salient aspects of functional rehabilitation and assessment after hand transplantation. 731
25. What are the important ethical considerations in undertaking hand transplantation? 732
26. Can you elucidate the psychiatric evaluations that are necessary during recipient screening or follow-up? 733
27. What complications have been noted in hand transplant recipients to date? 733
28. What is one very special consideration in hand transplantation that may have implications on recipient identity? 733
29. How can hand transplantation become a widespread clinically acceptable reconstructive option for upper extremity limb loss? 733
Bibliography 734
Section XI: The Hand and Upper Extremity 735
Chapter 114: Anatomy of the Hand 737
1. What is the thickest skin in the hand? 737
2. Why are most significant hand burns on the dorsum? 737
3. Why can we get away with single layer closure in the palm? 737
4. Does the thick stratum corneum affect the technique of skin closure in any other way? 737
5. How is the palmar skin so firmly fixed in place? 737
6. Name the three planes of the palmar fascia. 737
7. Which of the three palmar fascia planes is never involved in Dupuytren’s disease? 737
8. Does the palmar fascia extend into the fingers? 737
9. What is the “assembly line”? 737
10. What are the “checkrein ligaments”? 737
11. Name two unique types of infection on the palmar side of the hand that are due to the firm fixation of the skin to underlying structures. 738
12. Name another closed compartment in the hand in which bacterial infections can develop. 738
13. What are the other closed spaces associated with infections? 738
14. How can these compartments communicate with each other with the spread of an infection? 738
15. Can the ulnar- and radial-sided synovial systems communicate? 738
16. How does the unique anatomy of the fingertip shape the development of a paronychia? 739
17. Can a felon spread around the distal phalanx and become a paronychia? Can a paronychia spread around the nail plate into the palmar pulp and become a felon? 739
18. Which tissues contribute to growth of the nail plate? 739
19. What is the lunula? 739
20. What is the safe position for splinting the hand? 739
21. Why is flexion the safe position for the MP joint? 739
22. If flexion is the safe position for the MP joint, what do you do if you have to splint the joint in extension, as for extensor tendon repairs or palmar fascia excision for Dupuytren’s disease? 740
23. Why is extension the safe position for the IP joints? 740
24. The IP joint can be thought of as a box, with the articular surfaces of the phalanges forming the proximal and distal ends. What forms the other sides? 740
25. Which is the most mobile carpometacarpal joint? 740
26. Which are the least mobile CMC joints? 740
27. What is the last muscle innervated by the ulnar nerve as it courses through the palm? 740
28. What major peripheral nerve is responsible for extension of the thumb IP joint? 741
29. How can you test for function of the EPL? 741
30. There is much crossover of sensory innervation in the hand. Where do the median, ulnar, and radial sensory nerves supply sensibility with the least chance of crossover from neighboring territories? 741
31. Where is the one place on the hand where all three sensory nerves may be expected to provide maximal crossover innervation? 741
32. What three vascular arches provide anastomotic connections between the radial and ulnar blood supplies? 741
33. Despite proper tourniquet application, the wound begins to bleed during repair of a spaghetti wrist. Why? 741
34. How can you test the integrity of the vascular anastomotic connections between the two sides of the hand? 741
35. What are the boundaries of the carpal tunnel? 741
36. How many structures traverse the carpal tunnel? 741
37. What are the boundaries of Guyon’s canal? 741
38. Is the primary blood supply of the scaphoid distal or proximal? 741
39. What are the six dorsal extensor compartments of the wrist? 742
40. Which extrinsic tendons insert into carpal bones? 742
41. When is the ECU not primarily an extensor of the wrist? 742
42. Name the four insertions of the extrinsic extensor tendon. 742
43. How do you identify the proprius tendons of the index and little fingers? 742
44. What is the anatomic snuffbox? 743
45. What is the retinacular system of the extensor mechanism? 743
46. How do the lumbricals assist in IP joint extension? 743
47. What is the primary flexor of the MP joint? 743
48. What is the primary extender of the MP joint? 744
49. Which extends the IP joint: the extrinsic system or the intrinsic system? 744
50. When the intrinsic muscles are paralyzed, how is the finger affected? 744
51. Which interosseous muscles are innervated by the median nerve? 744
52. Which of the interosseous muscles abduct the fingers? Which adduct them? 744
53. What does the oblique retinacular ligament do? 744
54. What happens to the ORL in a boutonnière deformity? 744
55. How, then, can the DIP joint be flexed while maintaining extension of the PIP joint, which would have to stretch the ORL? 744
56. What is the smallest extrinsic flexor tendon? 744
57. Which interosseous muscles have insertions into the bases of the proximal phalanges? 744
58. Where else do the interosseous muscles insert? 744
59. Which individual structures are maintained in dorsal position by the transverse retinacular ligament of Landsmeer? 744
60. Which are the most important pulleys in the fibroosseous tunnel? 745
61. Why do the profundus tendons usually not retract into the palm after transection in the fingers? 745
62. Why can you not pull a superficialis tendon out through a palmar incision if you release it from its insertions in the middle phalanx? 745
63. How is the long vinculum of the profundus tendon related to the short vinculum of the superficialis? 745
64. Where in the tendon is the longitudinal intrinsic blood supply? 745
65. How are the flexor tendons arranged in the carpal tunnel? 745
66. How often is the palmaris longus tendon absent? 745
67. What is the second most useful tendon for grafting in the hand? 745
68. If the two primary tendon graft donors are missing, what is still available? 745
Bibliography 746
Chapter 115: Physical Examination of the Hand 747
1. It takes 2 months for a complete nail plate to grow. True or false? 747
2. Is it useful to have a proximal nail fold? 747
3. What is the Hutchinson’s sign? What does it mean? 747
4. What is the function of nails? 747
5. What is the best test to appreciate the functional sensibility of the hand? 747
6. How can you appreciate the sensory discrimination of a finger pulp? 747
7. What is the normal value for the two-point discrimination test at the pulp of the finger? 747
8. Why do patients with a low ulnar nerve palsy often have permanent abduction of the small finger? What is the name of this deformity? 747
9. How do you test the flexor digitorum profundus tendons? 748
10. How do you test the flexor digitorum superficialis tendons of the fingers? 748
11. If I try to test the FDS of the little finger as described in Question 10, why does the patient flex only the MP joint and not the PIP joint? 749
12. How can you determine whether there is an FDS in the index finger if the FDP of the index is independent? 749
13. In patients with rheumatoid arthritis who are unable to extend the ulnar three digits, what are the possible diagnoses? 749
14. How can you determine that the extensor pollicis longus tendon is intact and functional? 749
15. If flexion of the MP joint is limited, how can you determine whether the extensor tendons are adherent at the dorsum of the hand or at the wrist level? 749
16. What is Allen’s test? How do you perform it? 749
17. How do you determine a rotational deformity of the finger: in flexion or in extension? 749
18. Why is DIP joint flexion more important when the PIP joint is flexed than when the PIP joint is extended? 749
19. In patients experiencing stiffness with extension of the PIP joint, which clinical test identifies contracture of the interosseous muscles? 750
20. Which clinical test is specific for de Quervain’s tenosynovitis? How is it performed? 750
21. Which clinical signs are suggestive of flexor carpi radialis tendinitis? 751
22. If the IP joint of the thumb is flexed, why does the DIP joint of the index finger flex simultaneously? 751
23. In a patient who has sprained an MP joint, how can you diagnose a ligamentous rupture with instability? 751
24. What are the etiologies of a swan neck deformity of the fingers? 751
Bibliography 752
Chapter 116: Radiologic Examination of the Hand 753
1. Who performed the first radiograph of the hand? 753
2. Name some of the most common causes of diagnostic errors in interpreting radiographs of the hand after trauma. 753
3. What is Brewerton’s view? 753
4. Why is Rolando’s fracture considered a significant injury? 753
5. How are intraarticular fractures of the base of the phalanges classified? 754
6. List the radiographic hallmarks of rheumatoid arthritis (Fig. 116-3). 754
7. How can the ulnar deviation deformity of rheumatoid arthritis be explained? 754
8. What is the pattern of involvement of primary osteoarthritis? 754
9. Which is the most common benign bone tumor of the hand? 754
10. Why is the finding of multiple enchondromas significant? 754
11. Which is the most common malignant bone tumor of the hand? 755
12. Besides metastases and enchondromas, what is included in the differential diagnosis of multiple lytic bone lesions in the hand and wrist? 755
13. What disorder typically produces well-defined erosions with overhanging margins? 755
14. Which disease is characterized by the combination of periarticular soft tissue calcification and subperiosteal bone resorption? 755
15. List the major causes of a short fourth metacarpal. 755
16. What is the best way to image complex regional pain syndrome? 755
17. Does ultrasound have a role in imaging tendons? 756
18. Is magnetic resonance imaging useful in staging soft tissue tumors? 756
Controversies 757
Bibliography 757
Chapter 117: Anesthesia For Surgery of the Hand 758
Anatomy And Techniques 758
1. Describe the relevant anatomy for upper extremity brachial plexus blocks. 758
2. What is the concept of “plexus anesthesia”? 758
3. What parts of the brachial plexus are anesthetized by the interscalene, subclavianperivascular, infraclavicular, and axillary techniques of brachial plexus block? 759
4. What is the interscalene groove, and how is it located? 759
5. Although the block needle enters the interscalene groove for both the interscaleneand subclavian perivascular blocks, the needle direction differs for the two blocks.Describe the needle direction for each. 759
6. How is the correct location of the needle in the interscalene or subclavianperivascular space identified? 759
7. Besides the subclavian perivascular and interscalene blocks, what other brachialplexus blocks are performed above the clavicle? Describe how these blocks areperformed. 759
8. How is an infraclavicular block done? 759
9. What other techniques of infraclavicular block are described, and how are theyperformed? 759
10. Describe the axillary technique of brachial plexus block. 759
11. Besides a nerve stimulator, what additional tool is being used to facilitate placementof brachial plexus blocks? 760
12. What is the “multiple compartment” concept? 760
13. What is the advantage of using a catheter technique for brachial plexus block, andhow is it done? 760
Choice Of Local Anesthetic 760
14. What determines the choice of local anesthetic for brachial plexus block? 760
15. What is ropivacaine, and what is its advantage over bupivacaine? 761
16. What is the purpose of “alkalinization” of a local anesthetic? 761
Complications Of Brachial Plexus Block 761
17. What are some potential complications associated with interscalene block? 761
18. What is the mechanism of phrenic nerve block, how can it be diagnosed, and howcommon is it following interscalene block? 761
19. How is injection into the vertebral artery and epidural or subarachnoid spacesavoided with an interscalene block? 761
20. If the subclavian artery is punctured when performing a subclavian perivascularblock, the block needle should be redirected in which direction to locate the brachialplexus trunks? 761
21. How is the risk of pneumothorax minimized when performing a subclavianperivascular block? 761
22. How is a pneumothorax treated if it develops as a complication of interscalene orsubclavian perivascular brachial plexus block? 761
23. What nerve distribution is frequently missed when an interscalene block is performed? 762
24. Name some advantages of axillary block compared with interscalene or subclavianperivascular block. 762
25. What nerves are frequently missed with an axillary block and why? 762
26. If a postoperative nerve deficit develops and you suspect it may have been causedby the anesthetic, what should be done? 762
Blocks Around The Elbow 762
27. Describe how the ulnar, median, and radial nerves can be blocked around the elbow. 762
Wrist Blocks 762
28. How are wrist blocks performed? 762
Digital Nerve Blocks 763
29. Why should a ring block for anesthetizing a digit be avoided? 763
30. How can a digital block be obtained? 763
Intravenous Regional Anesthesia (Bier Block) 763
31. Describe the technique for performing a Bier block. 763
32. What are the advantages of a Bier block? 763
33. List some disadvantages of the Bier block technique. 763
Bibliography 764
Chapter 118: Congenital Anomalies 765
1. At what age of development does the limb bud appear? When are digital rays evident? 765
2. What does syndactyly mean? Is it the most common congenital anomaly? 765
3. What type of correction is best for syndactyly? 765
4. What are the principles of syndactyly correction? 765
5. What are the most common problems after syndactyly correction? 765
6. What is the most important web space in the hand? 765
7. What is the best method for surgical release of the first web space? 766
8. What contributes to thumb–index contracture? 766
9. How is syndactyly clinically classified? 766
10. Do children need more surgery after syndactyly repair? 766
11. Geneticists and pediatricians use the terms malformation, deformation, and disruption. What do they mean? 766
12. What is the relative incidence of congenital hand duplications? How are they clinically classified? 767
13. Is any special workup needed in newborns with a duplication? 767
14. How do you treat a newborn in the nursery with a type I floppy nubbin attached to the fifth finger? 768
15. Which side of a thumb duplication should be preserved? 768
16. What are the basic principles of thumb duplication correction? 768
17. What do you tell parents after a thumb duplication correction? Will the thumb be normal? 768
18. What are the genetics and incidence of the constriction ring syndrome? 768
19. What anatomic features distinguish CRS from other congenital anomalies of the upper limb? 768
20. What other terms have been used to describe CRS? 768
21. What is a constriction ring or anular (ring) band? 769
22. How is CRS treated? 769
23. Why are transverse absences associated with CRS ideal for toe-to-thumb transfers? 769
24. What does symphalangism mean? What are the more common clinical presentations? 769
25. How is symphalangism treated? 769
26. In what position should PIP joints be fused? 769
27. How can IP joints be reconstructed? 769
28. What is the difference between clinodactyly and camptodactyly? 769
29. What is the main anatomic problem in camptodactyly? 770
30. What are the radiologic signs of congenital camptodactyly? 770
31. What are the indications for joint release in camptodactyly? 770
32. What is the differential diagnosis of bilateral flexion deformities of the thumb? 770
33. When should a trigger thumb be released surgically? 770
34. What is the worst complication of a trigger release? 770
35. What conditions should be considered in a child born with gross enlargement of a digit? 770
36. What is the workup for macrodactyly? 771
37. What is the difference between hemangioma and vascular malformation? 771
38. Outline the five types of hypoplastic thumbs. 771
39. What are the possible options for reconstruction of type 3B thumbs? 771
40. What are the long-term functional limitations of a well-performed pollicization procedure? 771
41. Describe the hand in patients with Apert syndrome. 771
42. What is Poland syndrome? 772
43. How is the chest wall reconstructed in children with Poland syndrome? 772
44. What is the most persistent request of girls with Poland syndrome? 772
45. A child is born with impending gangrene of portions of one or both forearms. What condition does the child have? What type of workup is indicated? 772
46. What is Holt-Oram syndrome? 772
47. What single operation is most beneficial for patients with a congenital hand anomaly? 772
48. Describe the hand in a child with Freeman-Sheldon syndrome. 772
49. A child presents with a swollen hand and forearm and an associated neck mass diagnosed as a “cystic hygroma.” What is the underlying pathophysiology? 772
50. What is the difference between a typical and atypical cleft hand? 773
51. Describe the upper limb in a child with severe arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. 773
Bibliography 773
Chapter 119: The Pediatric Hand 774
1. How are the flexor tendons examined in an uncooperative or unconscious pediatric patient? 774
2. How is sensation evaluated in young children? 774
3. What is the O’Raine test? 774
4. Why is a laceration of palmaris longus of special significance? 774
5. What is a Kirner deformity? A pseudoepiphysis? The Pseudo-Terry Thomas sign? What is their significance? 774
6. Why is an understanding of carpal, metacarpal, and phalangeal ossification patterns essential in diagnosing and treating pediatric hand fractures? 775
7. What is a Seymour fracture? 775
8. How are long bone fractures of the hand in children described and classified? 776
9. Why are Salter-Harris type III fractures of the middle phalanx rare and Salter-Harris III fractures of proximal phalanx relatively common? 776
10. How are metacarpal base, shaft, neck, and epiphyseal fractures treated? 776
11. How much angulation of the metacarpal neck will be remodeled and therefore should be tolerated in children? 776
12. How are phalangeal fractures treated in children? 776
13. What is the “extra-octave fracture” and how is it fixed? What is a “cartilaginous cap” fracture? 777
14. What is the most common carpal fracture in children, and how does fracture of this bone differ between children and adults? 777
15. What is the youngest reported case of scaphoid fracture? 777
16. When should a scaphoid fracture be suspected, and how is it radiologically diagnosed? 777
17. What concomitant injuries are often associated with scaphoid fracture? 777
18. What is the proper course of action if the clinical suspicion of scaphoid fracture is high and radiographic evidence is low? 777
19. What are the three types of scaphoid fracture? 778
20. What is the blood supply to the scaphoid, and why is this important? 778
21. How are scaphoid fractures in children treated, and how is nonunion managed? 778
22. What is the most frequent level of digital amputation in the pediatric population, and what is the youngest age at which replantation is contraindicated? 778
23. What is the Allen classification of fingertip injuries? Discuss one special consideration of each type (Fig. 119-3). 778
24. What is the typical order for finger tip replantation in children? Discuss one special consideration for each step. 779
25. What is Volkmann’s ischemic contracture, what injury is most likely to cause it, and how is it treated? 779
26. How is an impending compartment syndrome recognized? What are the signs of an acute compartment syndrome? 779
27. List five major concepts in diagnosing and managing vascular tumors of the hand. 779
28. When do pediatric hand burns typically need grafting? 779
29. Which type of graft is most effective for grafting the hand: Split thickness or full thickness? 779
30. How are hand contractures classified? 780
31. What are the basic principles of contracture release in the pediatric hand? 780
Bibliography 780
Chapter 120: Problems Involving the Perionychium 781
1. Describe fingernail anatomy and fingernail production. 781
2. What function does the fingernail serve? 781
3. Describe the surrounding structures and their importance. 781
4. What is the lunula? 781
5. What is the blood supply of the nail bed? 781
6. What is the rate of nail growth? 781
7. How is growth rate impacted by nailbed injury? 781
8. What is the most common source of nail bed injuries? 782
9. Which digit is most commonly injured? 782
10. Describe several nail changes associated with trauma. 782
11. What is the significance of a subungual hematoma? 782
12. What are the different products that may be used as nail substitute/stent following injury? 782
13. What is the most appropriate management in the case of delayed presentation of acute injuries to the nailbed? 782
14. Describe several common nail changes that are manifestations of systemic disease. 782
15. What are the usual patterns of infection associated with the fingernail? 782
16. What are the most common benign periungual tumors? 783
17. What is the glomus body? 783
18. What is the differential diagnosis for pigmented subungual lesions? 783
19. What are melanonychia striata? 783
20. What is the current surgical therapy for nail apparatus melanoma? 783
21. Is there a role for adjuvant therapy in NAM? 783
Bibliography 784
Chapter 121: Fingertip Injuries 785
1. Which is the most frequently injured finger? 785
2. Where is the greatest quantity of dermal lymphatics in the human body? 785
3. What is the anatomic significant of the lunula? 785
4. What is the clinical significance of the lunula? 785
5. What are the goals for reconstruction of fingertip injuries? 785
6. What are the reconstructive options? 785
7. Do most injuries involving primarily skin loss from the fingertip heal better with skin grafts? 785
8. Does conservative treatment result in a greater period of unfitness for work? 785
9. If the nail has been destroyed, why not just shorten the digit to the level of the distal interphalangeal joint? 785
10. Describe the lumbrical-plus finger. 785
11. Why not preserve the profundus function and pad the stump by suturing it to the extensor tendon? 786
12. Which local flap is most suitable for reconstruction of multiple fingertip injuries on the same hand? 786
13. What vital structure is susceptible to injury during elevation of a thenar flap? 786
14. Some authors have worried about permanent joint contractures after thenar flap use and cautioned against this technique in older patients. Is such concern warranted? 786
15. Neglect of what key technical element in direct closure of a digital amputation typically results in a persistently painful finger? 786
16. Anesthesia for fingertip injuries usually is accomplished by digital nerve block. What measures can significantly decrease the pain associated with local injection? 786
17. What is glabrous skin? 786
18. Are there any tricks to obtaining a graft of uniform thickness? 786
19. Describe the terminal vascular anatomy of the finger. 786
20. Do neurovascular island flaps eventually integrate sensorally with their new site after transfer? 787
21. Aside from local flaps, what other techniques can be used to correct soft tissue losses to the fingertip? 787
22. Cold intolerance after fingertip injury is common. When does it resolve? 787
23. How is sensibility affected after advancement flap reconstruction of the fingertip? 787
24. Flaps are composite tissues intended to replace missing soft tissues (and occasionally muscle, bone, or cartilage) with similar components. Their common denominator, when successful, is patency of arterial inflow and venous outflow. Associate the follow 787
25. Is there a method of systematically describing fingertip injuries? 787
26. Is composite grafting a reliable method for managing fingertip amputations? 788
27. What factors have the greatest impact on composite graft survival in fingertip injuries? 788
28. Is replantation possible in distal tip amputations? 788
29. Match Figures 121-1 through 121-5 with the following flaps: 788
Bibliography 791
Chapter 122: Metacarpal And Phalangeal Fractures 792
1. Describe the epidemiology of fractures of the metacarpals and phalanges. 792
2. What is the distribution of fractures according to location? 792
3. How are fractures classified? 792
4. Describe the initial evaluation of patients with hand fractures. 792
5. How is rotation of a finger fracture evaluated? 792
6. What type of radiographs should be obtained? 792
7. What is the Salter-Harris classification of epiphyseal injuries in children? 792
8. What is a Seymour fracture? 793
9. Describe the general principles for management of hand fractures. 793
10. How are stable fractures managed? 793
11. What is an unstable fracture? 793
12. How are unstable fractures managed? 794
13. What is the safe position for immobilization of the hand? Why is this important? 794
14. Describe the different methods of internal fixation. 794
15. What is the apex dorsal bending rigidity (Newton-meters) for the different internal fixation techniques in metacarpal fractures? 794
16. What are the indications for internal fixation? 794
17. What are the advantages of K-wire fixation? 795
18. What are the disadvantages of K-wire fixation? 795
19. How soon can motion be started? 795
20. How long do fractures requiring open reduction or severely comminuted fractures with disruption of the periosteum take to heal? 795
21. Describe the treatment of extraarticular fractures of the distal phalanx. 795
22. What are the deforming forces in extraarticular fractures of the middle phalanx? 795
23. What are the deforming forces in extraarticular fractures of the proximal phalanx? How are they treated? 795
24. How are closed diaphyseal fractures of the phalanges treated? 795
25. What are the complications of phalangeal fractures? 796
26. What is the best view for diagnosing metacarpal head fractures? 796
27. How are metacarpal head fractures treated? 796
28. What are possible complications of metacarpal head fractures? 797
29. What is a boxer’s fracture? 797
30. What is the Jahss maneuver? 797
31. How much angulation can be accepted in metacarpal neck fractures? How are they treated? 797
32. How are metacarpal shaft fractures treated? 797
33. What are the complications of metacarpal fractures? 798
34. What is a Bennett fracture? 798
35. What is the epidemiology of Bennett fractures? 798
36. How are Bennett fractures treated? 798
37. What is a reverse Bennett fracture? 798
38. What is a Rolando fracture? 798
39. What role does the CMC joint of the little finger play? 799
40. How are open fractures treated? 799
41. How are fractures with segmental bone loss treated? 799
42. What is the “lag screw” technique of interfragmentary compression? 799
Bibliography 799
Chapter 123: Joint Dislocations and Ligament Injuries 800
1. Explain the difference between true collateral and accessory collateral ligaments. 800
2. What soft tissue structures provide stability to the proximal interphalangeal joint? 800
3. How is the functional stability of a joint tested? 800
4. What are the three types of dorsal PIP dislocations? 800
5. What is the treatment for chronic PIP dorsal subluxations? 801
6. What soft tissue injuries may occur with palmar PIP dislocation? 801
7. What structure is primarily involved in posttraumatic fibrosis of the PIP joint? 801
8. Are dislocations of the finger DIP and thumb interphalangeal joints common? 801
9. With an injury to another part of the hand, what anatomic difference between the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and PIP joints accounts for MCP joints being immobilized in flexion and PIP joints in extension? 801
10. Describe the anatomic structures that contribute to a complex or irreducible MCP joint dislocation. 801
11. Do digital carpometacarpal dislocations occur? 801
12. What is a gamekeeper’s thumb? 802
13. What is a Stener lesion? 802
14. Is it clinically important to differentiate between partial and complete ruptures of the thumb MCP UCL? 802
15. What soft tissue structure provides the most stability to the thumb CMC joint? 802
16. Does joint subluxation occur at the thumb CMC joint? 803
17. What is the most common complication following joint or ligament injury? 803
Bibliography 803
Chapter 124: Small Joint Arthrodesisand Arthroplasty 804
Small Joint Arthrodesis 804
1. What are the indications for small joint arthrodesis? 804
2. Describe the ideal position for fusion of the metacarpophalangeal, proximalinterphalangeal, and distal interphalangeal joints of the index, middle, ring, and littlefingers. 804
3. What is the ideal position for fusion of the MP and IP joints of the thumb? 804
4. A stiff finger is less cumbersome if it is slightly shorter, right? 804
5. What general principles must be adhered to so that a successful fusion can beobtained? 804
6. What are the internal fixation techniques available for small joint arthrodesis? 805
7. Which internal fixation technique should be used? 805
8. Discuss the situations when external fixation may be needed for arthrodesis. 805
9. Is bone grafting necessary for small joint fusions? 806
10. Should all chronic mallet deformities be fused? 806
11. Is small joint arthrodesis ever performed in children with open physes? 807
12. It is impossible to perform a digital fusion in children without interfering with digitalgrowth. True or false? 807
13. What are the most common complications encountered with small joint arthrodesis? 807
14. What are the most important considerations for a successful small joint arthrodesis? 807
Small Joint Arthroplasty 808
15. What should be considered when choosing arthroplasty versus arthrodesis? 808
16. When is arthroplasty in the small joints of the hand indicated? 808
17. What are some of the underlying conditions for which arthroplasty in the hand areperformed? 808
18. Arthroplasty in the hand for RA is being performed less frequently. True or false? 808
19. What are the contraindications to arthroplasty? 808
20. Name the structures necessary for a stable arthroplasty. 808
21. Describe the different types of arthroplasty most commonly performed. 808
22. What is the average arc of motion after PIP joint arthroplasty? 808
23. What is perichondral arthroplasty? 809
24. Which type of arthroplasty should be performed? 809
25. Discuss the common complications encountered with the use of silicone implants. 809
26. What are the early and late complications associated with small joint arthroplasty? 809
27. What are the most important considerations for a successful small jointarthroplasty? 810
Bibliography 810
Chapter 125: Flexor Tendon Injuries 811
1. Should acute flexor tendon lacerations be repaired primarily? 811
2. What is the orientation of the flexor digitorum profundus and flexor digitorum superficialis tendons at the level of the proximal phalanx? 811
3. Where does the flexor tendon sheath begin and end in the digit? Where are the various pulleys or thickened areas of the flexor sheath located? 811
4. What are the two ways in which flexor tendons receive nutrition? 811
5. What two areas of cellular activity contribute to flexor tendon healing? 811
6. What is the effect of stress on healing tendons? 812
7. During what period are flexor tendons weakest after repair? 812
8. List three factors that may lead to tendon adhesion formation. 812
9. What factors contribute to the strength of a repaired flexor tendon laceration? 812
10. What causes gapping at the repair site? How does it affect tendon healing? 812
11. How can the tendency for gapping at the repair site be decreased? 812
12. What are the most commonly used techniques for flexor tendon repair? 812
13. Describe the zones of flexor tendon injury. 813
14. If the FDS is lacerated in a zone II flexor tendon injury, should it be repaired? 814
15. In zone II flexor tendon laceration repairs, what area of the sheath can be opened for repair? What areas should be preserved? 814
16. How do you retrieve a proximal tendon end that has retracted proximally down the tendon sheath? 814
17. When the proximal ends of the lacerated FDS and FDP tendons retract into the palm, how can you correctly orient these tendons when they are brought out more distally into the digit? 814
18. How should zone I FDP tendon avulsion injuries be repaired? 815
19. Describe the three main types of avulsion injuries to the profundus tendon insertion. 815
20. How should FDP avulsions in which the diagnosis is delayed for more than several months be treated? 815
21. Should partial tendon lacerations be repaired? 815
22. What are the indications for tenolysis after flexor tendon repair? 816
23. What is the most frequent complication after early postoperative mobilization programs? 816
24. How do ruptures occur after flexor tendon repairs? What is the treatment? 816
25. Is a four-strand repair augmented by some type of running locked suture strong enough to allow early active motion therapy? 816
26. When can strengthening exercises be initiated after flexor tendon repair and appropriate early therapy protocols? 816
27. Outline the appropriate management of acute flexor tendon lacerations. 817
Controversies 817
Bibliography 817
Chapter 126: Extensor Tendon Injuries 818
1. What are the eight zones commonly used to describe extensor tendon injuries? 818
2. The thumb is typically divided into how many extensor zones? 818
3. Do the extensor digiti minimi and extensor indicis proprius tendons run ulnar or radial to their respective communis tendons? 818
4. Unlike the flexor tendons, the extensor tendons pass through discrete compartments at the level of the wrist. What is the orientation of the extensor tendons at the level of the wrist? 818
5. Which muscles extend the MCP and IP joints? What is their innervation? 819
6. Which finger and which zones are most commonly injured? 819
7. Which general area has the better prognosis after extensor tendon injury: The proximal zone (V through VIII) or the distal zone (I through IV)? 819
8. Following a crush injury to the hand, a man has limited flexion of his fingers. How do you determine whether this is due to intrinsic muscle fibrosis and scarring or due to extensor tendon adherence? 819
9. What are the juncturae tendineae? 820
10. What is a mallet finger or mallet deformity? 820
11. What causes a mallet deformity? 820
12. What are the different types of mallet fingers? 820
13. How is a mallet finger treated? 821
14. What is the most important consideration in extensor tendon repair: Strength of reconstruction or length of reconstruction? 821
15. What is a boutonnière deformity? 821
16. What is an acute boutonnière deformity? What biomechanical process produces it? How is it treated? 821
17. What is the currently recommended repair technique for extensor tendons? 821
18. What is the treatment protocol after extensor tendon repair? 821
Bibliography 822
Chapter 127: Tendon Transfers 823
1. What is a tendon transfer? 823
2. List the general principles of tendon transfers. 823
3. How do you select the donor tendons? 823
4. Does a muscle/tendon retain its strength after it is transferred? 823
Peripheral Nerve Injuries 823
5. Which deficits in radial nerve palsy from a lesion at the midhumeral level requiretransfers? 823
6. In a high radial nerve injury associated with a humeral fracture, is exploration of thenerve recommended? 823
7. List the standard tendon transfers for radial nerve palsy. 824
8. What area is affected by low median nerve palsy? What deficits are involved? 824
9. What movements are necessary for effective thumb opposition? 825
10. List the options for opposition transfers. 826
11. Where do you insert your opposition transfer? 826
12. What are the deficits in a high median nerve injury? 826
13. List the standard tendon transfers for a high median nerve injury. 826
14. What are the deficits in a low ulnar nerve palsy? 828
15. What are the transfers for the correction of clawing? 828
16. Which transfers primarily increase grip strength in the setting of a low ulnar nerveinjury? 828
17. How can you restore thumb adduction? 828
18. How can you restore index finger abduction? 830
19. What is the transfer to correct abduction of the little finger (Wartenberg’s sign)? 830
20. How might you improve sensibility in a low ulnar nerve injury? 830
21. What are the deficits in a high ulnar nerve palsy? 830
22. What are the standard tendon transfers for high ulnar nerve palsy? 830
Combined Nerve Injuries 830
23. In a low median/ulnar nerve palsy (the most common combined nerve injury), whatare the key deficits? 830
24. What are the recommended tendon transfers for reconstruction? 830
25. What transfers, in addition to those for low median/ulnar nerve palsy, may be usefulin a high median/ulnar nerve palsy? 831
Cerebral Palsy 831
26. List several common hand and upper extremity deformities seen in cerebral palsythat may benefit from tendon transfers. 831
27. What procedures are used to correct the thumb-in-palm deformity? 832
28. What transfers help correct the clenched fist? 832
29. What soft tissue procedures correct the wrist flexion/ulnar deviation, with or withoutpronation, seen in cerebral palsy? 832
30. If the wrist flexion, ulnar deviation, and pronation are due to a fixed bony deformity,what are the treatment options? 832
31. Elbow flexion contractures are common in cerebral palsy, although they do not oftenrequire surgical release. What structures would need to be released? 832
Rheumatoid Arthritis 832
32. What is caput ulnae syndrome? 832
33. After the EPL, the digital extensor tendons are the most frequently ruptured tendonsin rheumatoid patients. They tend to rupture from ulnar (EDQ, EDCsmall,ring) to radial(EDCmiddle,index, EIP). What are the options for transfers if the EPL is intact? 832
34. What are the choices for transfers if the EPL is ruptured? 832
35. What other disorders are in the differential diagnosis of extensor tendon rupturesin rheumatoid patients? 833
36. Flexor tendon ruptures are also seen in rheumatoid patients. Briefly discuss themajor options for transfers. 833
Tetraplegia 833
37. In tetraplegic patients, elbow extension is important for transfer capabilities andto reach objects from a seated wheelchair position. How can elbow extension bereconstructed with tendon transfers? 833
38. In C6 tetraplegics, the lowest functioning level is C6, and wrist extensors arefunctional. How can you provide useful grasp (key pinch)? 833
39. In C7 tetraplegics with elbow and wrist extension, how can you achieve pinch? 833
40. List the priorities of reconstruction of function in tetraplegia. 833
Obstetric Brachial Plexus Palsy 833
41. What are the most common types of brachial plexus injury? 833
42. What are the most important prognostic indicators in obstetric brachial plexus palsy? 833
43. What are the primary considerations when contemplating primary brachial plexus surgery? 833
44. For a patient with C5–C6 (upper trunk) palsy, what are the primary deficiencies?How might you address them? 834
45. For a patient with C8–T1 (lower trunk) injury, what muscles are deficient? Whattransfers are useful? 834
Traumatic Brachial Plexus Palsy 834
46. What is the recommended assessment protocol for a traumatic brachial plexus injury? 834
47. What options exist for reconstruction/repair of a traumatic brachial plexus injury? 834
48. What is the most important function to restore in a traumatic brachial plexus injury? 834
Arthrodeses 834
49. What are the primary purposes for arthrodesis in patients with a nerve palsy,cerebral palsy, or rheumatoid arthritis? 834
50. To facilitate thumb–index tip pinch and to provide proximal thumb abduction stabilityin combined nerve palsies, cerebral palsy, and quadriplegia, what arthrodeses canbe used? 834
51. In combined nerve injuries, wrist stability is often a problem. Which arthrodesisis useful? 835
52. If an adducted thumb cannot be stabilized by transfers (as in cerebral palsy,quadriplegia, and combined median/ulnar injury), which bony procedure maybe helpful? 835
53. In an upper trunk brachial plexus palsy, shoulder weakness and/or instability maybe seen. What procedure apart from tendon transfer may be useful? 835
Bibliography 835
Chapter 128: Soft Tissue Coverage Of The Hand 836
1. Which mechanisms of injury to the hand often result in significant soft tissue loss requiring reconstruction? 836
2. What injuries present the most difficult challenges for soft tissue coverage? 836
3. What are the indications for flap coverage? 836
4. How is a wound prepared for flap coverage? 836
5. What is the significance of random and axial flaps? 836
6. Describe the venous anatomy of the upper extremity. 836
7. How does blood bypass the valves in a retrograde flap? 836
8. Can a fasciocutaneous flap be elevated from the dorsal aspect of the forearm? 836
9. What is a distant pedicle flap? What are the indications for its use? 837
10. What is the most commonly used distant pedicle flap? 837
11. What is the significance of the groin flap? 837
12. How is a groin flap designed? 837
13. What are the disadvantages of the groin flap? 837
14. How are anterior chest wall and abdominal wall flaps designed? 838
15. What is a fillet flap? 838
16. What are the indications for free tissue transfer? 838
17. Which free flaps are most commonly used? 838
18. Which flap is commonly used as a regional pedicle flap or free flap? 839
19. How can the radial forearm flap be used as a regional pedicle flap? 839
20. How is a radial forearm flap elevated? 839
21. What is the main contraindication to use of the radial forearm free flap? 840
22. Can a radial forearm pedicle flap be harvested without sacrificing the radial artery? 840
23. What fasciocutaneous free flap can be harvested from the lateral arm? 840
24. What is the thinnest free flap available for coverage of the dorsum of the hand? 840
25. What is a functional free muscle transfer? 840
26. What is a composite free flap? 840
27. What are the advantages and disadvantages of composite free flaps? 841
28. Describe the neurosensory functions of the hand. 841
29. What are the indications for the use of a sensate free flap? 841
30. Which sensate free flaps are commonly used? 841
31. Does tissue expansion have a role in coverage of soft tissue defects of the hand? 841
Bibliography 841
Chapter 129: Infections of the Hand 843
1. Who was Allen B. Kanavel? 843
2. What was the mortality rate associated with hand infections in the preantibiotic era? 843
3. What is the most common hand infection? 843
4. What is the most common pathogen responsible for hand infections? 843
5. What is the etiopathogenesis of felons? 843
6. What are the possible consequences of untreated or inappropriately treated felons? 843
7. What are the different types of incisions for drainage of felons? 843
8. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the incisions listed in Question 7. 843
9. What are the advantages of the midvolar longitudinal incision? 844
10. What complications may follow treatment of felons? 844
11. What is the clinical presentation of herpetic whitlow? 844
12. Is herpetic whitlow an aseptic felon? 844
13. How is herpetic whitlow treated? 844
14. Is surgical drainage ever indicated for treatment of herpetic whitlow? 844
15. What are acute paronychia? 844
16. What is a “runaround” infection? 844
17. How are acute paronychia treated? 844
18. What are chronic paronychia? 844
19. How are chronic paronychia similar to acute paronychia? 845
20. How are chronic paronychia treated? 845
21. How many cardinal signs did Kanavel originally describe? 845
22. What are Kanavel’s four cardinal signs of flexor tenosynovitis? 845
23. How is acute flexor tenosynovitis treated? 845
24. What are the open and closed approaches to tendon sheath irrigation for acute flexor tenosynovitis? 845
25. How is gonococcal flexor tenosynovitis treated? 845
26. Which pathogens are most commonly responsible for acute flexor tenosynovitis? 845
27. What are the complications of untreated or inappropriately treated acute flexor tenosynovitis? 845
28. What are the fascial spaces in the hand? 846
29. Name the fascial spaces of the hand. 846
30. Why are the fascial spaces pertinent to hand infections? 846
31. What is a “collar button” abscess? 846
32. What are the causes of dorsal hand swelling? 846
33. Describe the treatment of a dorsal hand abscess. 846
34. What are the boundaries of the thenar space? 846
35. What is the position of the thumb in thenar space infections? 846
36. What incisions are used for drainage of thenar space abscesses? 847
37. What are the boundaries of the midpalmar space? 847
38. What incisions are used for drainage of a midpalmar space abscess? 847
39. What structures are connected to form a “horseshoe” abscess? 847
40. What factors lead to the development of osteomyelitis after a human bite? 847
41. What organisms are encountered in a human bite infection? What is appropriate initial antibiotic therapy? 847
42. What organisms are associated with wounds contaminated with river or sea water? What antibiotic therapy is appropriate? 847
43. What factors predispose to the development of necrotizing fasciitis? What are the etiologic organisms? Describe the pathologic process. 847
44. What organisms are frequently seen in dog and cat bites? 847
45. Describe the clinical presentation of sporotrichosis in the upper extremity. How is it treated? 848
46. What factors predispose to the development of gas gangrene? How is it treated? 848
47. What organisms are frequently cultured from abscesses due to intravenous drug abuse? 848
48. In diabetic hand infections, what factors correlate with an increased risk of amputation? 848
Bibliography 848
Chapter 130: Replantation and Revascularization 849
1. What is the goal of replantation surgery? 849
2. What important factors affect outcome in extremity replants? 849
3. What are the indications for replantation? 849
4. What are the contraindications to replantation? 849
5. How do you store an amputated part? 849
6. What do you evaluate first in an amputation patient? 849
7. Is an operating microscope required to perform a replant? 850
8. What closing pressure in a microvascular clamp can result in intimal injury? 850
9. Describe the operative sequence in finger or hand replantation. 850
10. In what situation is bone fixation postponed? 850
11. What do you do if you cannot repair digital nerves primarily? 850
12. How about the median and ulnar nerves? What if primary repair is not possible? 850
13. What is the treatment of arterial insufficiency after replantation? 850
14. Why do most replants fail? 850
15. How many arteries need to be repaired to successfully revascularize a finger? 850
16. How many veins need to be repaired? 850
17. What is the treatment of venous insufficiency after replantation? 851
18. How do you sacrifice a leech after it has been used? 851
19. What kind of infection is associated with leeches? 851
20. Which vessels are used in ear replantation? 851
21. Which vessels are used in scalp replantation? 851
22. How do you perform a penis replant? 851
23. A man presents to the emergency room with a four-finger saw amputation. The thumb was not amputated. The fingers are replantable. The small and long fingers are easy to identify, but the index and ring fingers are difficult to tell apart because they ar 851
24. What methods are used to monitor replants? 851
25. Should isolated ulnar artery or radial artery injuries be repaired if hand perfusion is judged to be good? 852
Controversies 852
bibliography 852
Chapter 131: Thumb Reconstruction 853
1. When was the first toe-to-thumb transfer performed for thumb reconstruction? 853
2. What are the goals of thumb reconstruction? 853
3. What is adequate thumb length for useful function? 853
4. What methods are available for thumb reconstruction? 853
5. In the era of microsurgery, why even consider prosthetics? 853
6. Is the child with a congenitally missing part an “amputee”? 853
7. Should you fit a prosthesis on a child? 853
8. How and why does the reconstructive approach differ in congenital and acquired thumb deficiencies? 853
9. What syndromes are associated with thumb hypoplasia, and what associated systemic disorders must be considered? 854
10. What is the timing of reconstruction of the congenitally deficient thumb? 854
11. How are congenital thumb deficiencies classified? 854
12. What types of thumb deficiencies should be reconstructed? 854
13. Why not a toe-to-thumb transfer? 854
14. What techniques can be used for less severe hypoplasia of the thumb? 854
15. How is the index finger pollicized? 855
16. Why is the metacarpal head palmarly rotated? 855
17. Which muscles of the index finger assume the function of which muscles of the thumb? 855
18. What are the options for reconstruction of the distal third of the thumb? 855
19. What are the options for reconstruction of the middle third of the thumb? 855
20. What are the options for reconstruction of the proximal third of the thumb? 856
21. What is osteoplastic reconstruction? 856
22. Does loss of the first toe cause gait disturbance? 856
23. What is the vascular pedicle of the transferred first toe? 856
24. Can parts of toes be used? 856
25. Describe the different options for toe-to-thumb transfer. 856
26. When is pollicization preferable to toe transfer for reconstruction of a traumatically amputated thumb? What are the advantages and disadvantages compared with a toe-to-thumb transfer? 857
27. Summarize the surgical options for thumb reconstruction. 857
Controversy 857
28. Which toe is preferred for thumb reconstruction? 857
Bibliography 857
Chapter 132: The Mutilated Hand 858
1. What is a mutilated hand? 858
2. What is prehension? 858
3. What are the main objectives in the treatment of a mutilated hand? 858
4. Outline a treatment plan for the management of mutilating injuries of the hand. 858
5. How are mutilating injuries of the hand classified? 858
6. What is the “tic-tac-toe” classification system for mutilating injuries of the hand? 859
7. What are dorsal mutilation injuries (type I)? 859
8. What are palmar mutilation injuries (type II)? 861
9. What are ulnar mutilation injuries (type III)? 861
10. What are radial mutilation injuries (type IV)? 862
11. What are transverse amputations (type V)? 862
12. What is a phalangeal hand? 865
13. What is a metacarpal hand? 865
14. What is the Krukenberg procedure? 865
15. What are degloving injuries (type VI)? 865
16. What are combination injuries (type VII)? 867
17. What is an emergency free flap? 867
18. What is spare parts surgery? 867
19. What is ectopic parts surgery? 867
20. When is amputation indicated? 867
21. What is the role of prostheses in the management of the mutilated hand? 867
Bibliography 868
Chapter 133: Vascular Disorders of the Upper Extremity 869
1. What is Raynaud’s phenomenon? What is the difference between Raynaud’s disease and Raynaud’s phenomenon? 869
2. What is the Wake Forest classification of occlusive/vasospastic disease? 869
3. What are the surgical options for treatment of Raynaud’s disease? How can you preoperatively evaluate response to a s 869
4. What is Buerger’s disease? 870
5. What is the difference between a true and a false aneurysm? 870
6. What is “steal phenomenon”? 870
7. What is the treatment of an embolic event of the upper extremity? 870
8. How does a typical hemangioma compare to a vascular malformation in a newborn? 870
9. What are the phases of a developing hemangioma? 870
10. What is the treatment of hemangiomas of the upper extremity? 871
11. What is Maffucci syndrome? 871
12. What are pyogenic granulomas? How are they treated? 871
13. What is a glomus tumor? 871
14. What are “Hildreth’s sign” and the “Love test”? 871
15. What is Kasabach-Merritt syndrome? 871
16. Why do arteriovenous malformations expand and involve surrounding tissues? 872
17. What are the indications for amputation? 872
18. How does a port-wine stain of the upper extremity compare to those of the head and neck? 872
19. What are Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome and Parkes-Weber syndrome? 872
20. How are venous malformations evaluated? 872
21. What are the complications of VM treatment? 872
22. What is blue rubber bleb nevus syndrome? 872
23. What are lymphatic malformations? 872
24. What is a cystic hygroma? 873
Bibliography 873
Chapter 134: Compartment Syndrome And Ischemic Contracture In The Upper Extremity 874
1. What are the compartments of the forearm, and what structures do they contain? 874
2. What are the most common causes of upper extremity compartment syndrome? 874
3. What is the physiologic cause of ischemia in the upper extremity? 874
4. How does elevation paradoxically worsen the compartment syndrome? 875
5. What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome? 875
6. What is usually the first finding and the last? 875
7. What tests can be used if the diagnosis is uncertain, and when should they be used? 875
8. At what compartment pressure does ischemia ensue? 875
9. What is the best way to improve outcome in forearm compartment syndrome? 875
10. Describe the technique of upper extremity compartment fasciotomy and the important structures that should be released. 875
11. Are there any other treatments of acute compartment syndrome? 876
12. What situations might mandate an exploration of the deep compartments? 876
13. What is the most common cause of hand compartment syndrome, and how is it treated? 876
Ischemic Contractures 876
14. Who first described the long term sequelae of upper extremity ischemia? 876
15. When was the pathophysiology leading to contracture and effective treatment outlined? 876
16. What is the most common cause of Volkmann’s contractures in developing countries? 876
17. What injury in children is most commonly associated with Volkmann’s contracture, and how does it occur? 877
18. Which compartment is most commonly affected by compartment syndrome and why? 877
19. Describe three levels of severity in established Volkmann’s contracture and their treatment options (Fig. 134-3). 877
Bibliography 877
Chapter 135: Peripheral Nerve Injuries 878
1. Describe the functional anatomy of peripheral nerves. 878
2. How are nerve injures classified? What is the clinical importance of classification? 878
3. What is meant by wallerian degeneration? 879
4. What are the bands of Büngner? 879
5. What are the bands of Fontana? 879
6. What is Tinel’s sign? 879
7. How fast do nerves regenerate? 879
8. If nerves regenerate at the rate of 1 inch/month and the tip of the ulnar two fingers is approximately 30 inches from the axilla, does this mean that a complete ulnar nerve injury at the level of the axilla will take 2.5 years to restore sensibility to t 880
9. In the same situation as described in Question 8, will the ulnar-innervated hand intrinsic muscles regain function 2.5 years after injury? 880
10. Do all proximal motor nerve injuries result in permanent loss of function? 880
11. What are nerve transfers? 880
12. Is a motor nerve transfer better than a tendon transfer? 880
13. When should a motor nerve transfer be used instead of a nerve graft? 880
14. Should all open wounds be explored? 880
15. How long should you wait before operating on a closed nerve injury? 881
16. What is the best way to treat peripheral nerve injuries resulting in segmental loss of continuity? 881
17. What is the best method for surgical nerve repair? 882
18. How are nerve repairs classified? 882
19. Is primary repair always better than secondary repair? 883
20. How do you know which repair should be used in which situation? 883
21. Which quick intraoperative landmarks can be used to match fascicles during an end-to-end neurorrhaphy? 883
22. Describe the clinical tests for nerve function in the hand. 883
23. What is a Martin-Gruber communication or Martin-Gruber anastomosis? Why is it important in nerve injuries of the hand? 883
24. What other anomalous motor nerve connections exist in the upper extremity? 884
Controversies 884
25. Does end-to-side neurorrhaphy work? 884
26. Are all nerve grafts the same? 884
Bibliography 884
Chapter 136: Nerve Compression Syndromes 885
1. Which nerve compression syndromes affect the upper extremity? 885
2. What area of sensibility is abnormal with pronator syndrome but not with carpal tunnel syndrome? 885
3. What surgical technique used to treat cubital tunnel syndrome has been demonstrated to reduce intraneural pressure in the ulnar nerve in all degrees of elbow flexion and has the lowest published recurrence rate? 885
4. What is the common name given to brachial plexus compression in the thoracic inlet? How can you make the diagnosis? 885
5. How do you distinguish de Quervain’s tenosynovitis from radial sensory nerve compression? 885
6. How do you distinguish tennis elbow from radial tunnel syndrome? 886
7. What are the earliest physical findings of chronic peripheral nerve compression? 886
8. Describe the pathophysiology of chronic nerve compression. 886
9. Which nerve compression syndromes affect the lower extremity? 886
10. What are the analogous peripheral nerves that become entrapped at the wrist compared with at the ankle (carpal tunnel vs tarsal tunnel)? 886
11. Is Morton’s neuroma a true neuroma? 887
12. Describe the sequence of recovery of sensory touch submodalities. 887
13. What are the structures that must be released when treating the fibular canal syndrome (compression of the common peroneal nerve at the knee)? 887
14. What is the most common nerve compression occurring in the face? 887
15. Which nerve compressions masquerade as “failed carpal tunnel syndrome decompression”? 887
16. What causes “meralgia paresthetica”? 887
17. Where is the nerve entrapment site that causes scapular winging? 887
18. Describe some of the limitations to classic electrodiagnostic testing. 888
19. What is the difference between neuropathy and nerve compression? 888
20. Can the arcade of Struthers cause compression of the ulnar nerve? 888
21. Can decompression of peripheral nerves in the patient with diabetic neuropathy relieve pain, restore sensation, and prevent ulcer/amputation? 888
22. What are the cutaneous nerves that can contribute to a painful incision after decompression of the four medial ankle tunnels (tarsal tunnel surgery)? 888
23. What nerve compression is associated with chemotherapy-induced neuropathy from cisplatin or taxol? 888
24. After nerve decompression surgery, how long should the patient be immobilized? 889
Bibliography 889
Chapter 137: Brachial Plexus 891
1. Which nerve roots supply the brachial plexus? 891
2. What is a prefixed plexus? A postfixed plexus? 891
3. Which nerves form the trunks of the brachial plexus? 891
4. Which nerves form the cords of the brachial plexus? 891
5. How are the peripheral nerves formed in the brachial plexus? 891
6. Where are lateral and medial pectoral nerves found in relation to each other? What is the clinical significance? 892
7. What is the common mechanism of closed brachial plexus injury in adults? 892
8. What is the best method to determine the level and severity of a brachial plexus injury? 892
9. What are the common clinical patterns of closed brachial plexus injury in adults? 892
10. What are the indications for an arteriogram after an injury to the brachial plexus? 892
11. What is the significance of a preganglionic and postganglionic lesion of the brachial plexus? What findings suggest a preganglionic lesion? 892
12. What is the histamine triple response? 893
13. What findings are associated with root avulsions? What is the significance of a root avulsion? 893
14. What are the goals of brachial plexus reconstruction? 894
15. What techniques are used in reconstruction of the brachial plexus? What are some of the limitations of each? 894
16. What nerves can be used as donor nerves for nerve grafting? 894
17. What are the degrees of nerve injury? Why are they significant in brachial plexus reconstruction? 894
18. Describe the optimal timing of exploration of an adult traction injury of the brachial plexus. 895
19. What causes obstetric palsy? 895
20. What are the indications and timing for exploration of obstetric palsy? 895
21. What symptoms are associated with thoracic outlet syndrome? 895
22. What is the anatomy of the thoracic outlet? 895
23. What is the cause of thoracic outlet syndrome? 895
24. Which physical examination techniques are useful in evaluation of thoracic outlet syndrome? 896
25. What is the treatment of thoracic outlet syndrome? 896
26. What is Parsonage Turner syndrome? What is the recommended treatment? 896
Controversies 896
27. What is the indication for neurolysis of the brachial plexus? 896
28. What is the clinical significance of the suprascapular nerve? 896
Bibliography 896
Chapter 138: Rheumatoid Arthritis 898
1. What is the presentation of rheumatoid arthritis? 898
2. How is the diagnosis of RA made? 898
3. What is the pathophysiology of RA? 898
4. What are the radiographic features of RA? 898
5. What are the clinical features of RA? 898
6. What are the most common expressions of RA in the hand and upper extremity? 898
7. What is the caput ulnae syndrome? 898
8. What are the causes of tendon ruptures in RA? 899
9. What is the differential diagnosis for inability to extend the MP joints in RA? 899
10. What is the medical treatment of RA? 899
11. What are the four objectives of surgical treatment in the rheumatoid hand? 899
12. How do you approach the rheumatoid hand? 899
13. What are the general categories of surgical procedures performed for the rheumatoid hand and wrist? 899
14. What are the indications for an extensor tenosynovectomy? 899
15. What is the preferred treatment of extensor tendon ruptures? 899
16. What are the typical deformities in the radiocarpal and intercarpal joints in RA? 900
17. What are the indications for MP joint arthroplasty? 900
18. What are the common finger deformities in the rheumatoid hand? 900
19. What is the surgical approach to correction of the swan neck deformity? 900
20. What is the mechanism leading to boutonnière deformity? 900
21. What are the indications for thumb fusion in RA? 900
Bibliography 900
Chapter 139: Dupuytren’s Disease 901
1. What is the cause of Dupuytren’s disease? 901
2. What diseases are associated with DD? 901
3. Is DD related to work or injury? 901
4. What are the risk factors for developing DD? 901
5. Does the diseased tissue exhibit specific patterns? 901
6. Which fascia causes the various flexion contractures in the hand? 902
7. By what mechanism is the neurovascular bundle displaced? 902
8. To which group of diseases does DD belong? How are they classified? 903
9. What are the histologic features of the nodules of DD? 903
10. What is the role of the myofibroblast? 903
11. What is different about the collagen of normal fascia and Dupuytren’s tissue? 903
12. Where are nodules usually located? 903
13. What clinical features and other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis of DD? 903
14. Is there a role for nonoperative treatment? 903
15. What are the indications for operative treatment? 904
16. What are the goals of surgery? 904
17. What are the options in designing an operation for DD? 904
18. What is the rationale for using skin grafts? What are the indications? 904
19. What is the difference between extension and recurrence? 904
20. What are the complications of surgery? 904
21. How are patients managed postoperatively? 905
Bibliography 905
Chapter 140: Stenosing Tenosynovitis 906
1. What is stenosing tenosynovitis? 906
2. Which tendons can be affected by ST? 906
3. What causes ST? 906
4. What are some of the risk factors for developing ST? 906
5. What is the initial treatment of ST, and how successful is nonsurgical management? 906
6. Who was de Quervain? 906
7. What is the Finkelstein maneuver? 907
8. What features distinguish de Quervain’s disease from basal joint arthritis? 907
9. What anatomic structures and variations must be remembered during de Quervain’s surgical release? 907
10. What is intersection syndrome? 907
11. What is the most common digit affected in trigger finger? 907
12. What is the etiology of trigger finger? 907
13. Where are the typical incisions placed for trigger finger release? 908
14. What anatomic relationship is critical in trigger thumb release? 908
15. How should rheumatoid trigger finger be treated? 908
16. How should an infant who presents with triggering be managed? 909
Bibliography 909
Chapter 141: Tumors 910
1. What is the definition of a tumor? 910
2. What types of tissues form hand tumors? 910
3. Are most tumors of the hand benign or malignant? 910
4. What are the basic tenets of hand tumor surgery? 910
5. Are laboratory tests helpful in the diagnosis of hand tumors? 910
6. Describe the evaluation, workup, and treatment plan for a suspicious hand mass. 911
7. What is the most common soft tissue mass in the hand? How is it treated? 911
8. Biopsy of a hand mass reveals an orange-brown tumor with multinucleated giant and xanthoma cells on histologic analysis. What is the most probable diagnosis? Will definitive treatment require an amputation? 911
9. What is the most likely diagnosis of a painful hand mass relieved only by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs? What is the workup and management of this mass? 911
10. What different types of surgical margins can be used for tumors found in the hand? 913
11. Name the most common malignant bone-forming tumor found in the hand. Describe its clinical and radiographic features along with its treatment 913
12. A patient has exquisite point tenderness in her finger when she puts her hand in the refrigerator. What is the diagnosis? 913
13. What is a pyogenic granuloma? What are treatment options? 913
14. Describe the clinical course of a keratoacanthoma. Why is an excisional biopsy recommended? If a patient presents with multiple keratoacanthomas, what other diagnostic modalities should be performed? 913
15. What are the most likely causes of carpal tunnel syndrome in a child? 914
16. What is an epidermal inclusion cyst? What is the most appropriate treatment for removal of this mass? 915
17. A 70-year-old man presents to your clinic with a firm, nontender, nodular mass on the volar aspect of his right index fin 915
18. What is the most common skeletal tumor of the hand? 915
19. What is the most common benign bone tumor? 915
20. What is the potential for malignant transformation of a solitary enchondroma? What is Ollier disease? What is Maffucci disease? Is there a potential for malignant transformation among these disease processes? 915
21. What is most important prognostic indicator based on histology in melanoma? What is the treatment of this lesion? 916
22. What is the differential diagnosis of hyperpigmentation found in the eponychial fold of the finger? What is Hutchinson’s sign? Is this diagnostic of a melanoma? 916
23. What physical findings in a pigmented skin lesion potentially make the lesion suspicious for a malignancy? What is the appropriate workup for a skin lesion of the hand that is diagnosed as a melanoma? 916
24. What is an actinic keratosis? 917
25. A previously diagnosed actinic keratosis starts to ulcerate and bleed. What is this lesion now, and how does it spread? 917
26. What is a basal cell carcinoma? Which lesion has a higher potential to spread through the lymphatics: basal cell carcinoma or squamous cell carcinoma? 917
27. A 12-year-old girl presents with a deep and painful mass in the hand located over the thenar eminence. A history of rapid enlargement is elicited from the patient and her parents. An excisional biopsy reveals a rhabdomyosarcoma. How common is this mas 917
28. A mass similar to that described in Question 27 is found in a 40-year-old patient. However, the mass has recently ulcerated and drained fluid. Biopsy is consistent with a sarcoma, revealing epithelial cells with a central area of necrosis. What is this 917
29. What is a hemangioma? Where does it occur in the upper extremity? What is the treatment of this lesion? 918
30. What is Kasabach-Merritt syndrome? 918
31. What are vascular malformations? Are they present at birth? 919
32. A mass in the hand is extremely suspicious for a malignancy. Do you exsanguinate the hand prior to removing the mass? 919
33. Name five common primary cancers that can metastasize to the hand. Which one is the most common? Which bone is commonly affected, and what does x-ray show? 919
34. Describe a neurofibroma. What is Von Recklinghausen disease? Is malignant transformation possible? 919
35. Are neurofibromas and neurilemomas the same? Does their treatment differ? Is a neurilemoma common in the hand? 919
36. Describe the classification system developed by Enneking for staging of musculoskeletal tumors. 920
37. Who should biopsy a mass in the hand? 920
Bibliography 920
Chapter 142: Complex Regional Pain Syndrome 922
1. What is complex regional pain syndrome? 922
2. What are the differences among reflex sympathetic dystrophy, sympathetically maintained pain syndrome, and CRPS I? 922
3. Does experimental evidence suggest the involvement of sympathetic nerves in some chronic pain syndromes? 922
4. Describe the functional anatomy of the sympathetic nervous system. 923
5. What is the relevance of the sympathetic nervous system to pain? 923
6. What is (or was) causalgia? 923
7. Which is more common, CRPS I or CRPS II? 923
8. What is the most common triggering event for RSD (CRPS I)? 923
9. Who is more likely to be diagnosed with CRPS? 923
10. Is CRPS overdiagnosed? 923
11. Does CRPS occur only in the extremities? 923
12. What is orofacial RSD, and why is it different? 923
13. What are the stages of CRPS? 924
14. How can you accurately diagnose SMPS? 924
15. What are the principles of management of SMPS? 924
16. How does physical therapy help? 924
17. What complications may develop with CRPS? 924
18. Which invasive therapies for SMPS are most effective? 925
19. How does cigarette smoking affect RSD (CRPS I)? 925
Controversies 925
20. Are certain people more prone to developing SMPS? 925
21. Can you prevent RSD (CRPS I)? 925
22. Are patients with CRPS depressed? 925
23. Is RSD (CRPS I) an autoimmune disease? 925
Bibliography 926
Chapter 143: Rehabilitation of the Injured Hand 927
1. What are the physiologic effects of early motion programs after tendon repair? 927
2. Describe early passive mobilization after flexor tendon repair in the hand. 927
3. When are early active mobilization protocols used after flexor tendon repair? 927
4. Describe early passive mobilization protocols used for extensor tendons in zones V, VI, and VII. 928
5. What is the short arc motion protocol for zone III and IV extensor tendon repairs? 928
6. What are flexor tendon gliding exercises? 928
7. Describe splinting after MCP implant arthroplasty. 928
8. Name three possible long-term postoperative complications of MCP implant arthroplasty. 929
9. Describe examples of joint protection techniques for patients with arthritis 929
10. What factors must be evaluated to determine the cause of limited passive motion? 929
11. When is it appropriate to initiate active motion after an intraarticular fracture of the PIP joint? 929
12. What important principles must be followed in planning a treatment program after limited wrist arthrodesis to correct wrist instability? 929
13. Why should a patient be referred for hand therapy after a nerve injury? 929
14. What are the potential deformities and splinting needs for radial nerve injuries? 929
15. What are the potential deformities and splinting needs for ulnar nerve injuries? 929
16. What are the potential deformities and splinting needs for median nerve injuries? 930
17. What readily available tests are used for determining early changes in sensibility due to nerve compression? 930
18. What are the most common postural faults noted in patients with thoracic outlet syndrome that can be improved with therapy? 930
19. Describe the benefits of hand therapy for patients with carpal tunnel syndrome or other forms of cumulative trauma. 930
20. What are the key issues in conservative treatment of cubital tunnel syndrome? 931
21. What are upper limb tension tests? 931
22. What general principle can be used to activate a muscle after tendon transfer? 931
23. What are some conservative interventions specific to treating musicians with cumulative trauma? 931
24. What are some common problems that require treatment after a crush injury? 931
25. During the first 48 to 72 hours status post burn, what is the appropriate position for splinting the hand with dorsal thermal injuries? 931
26. Name three methods for preventing hypertrophic scarring after a burn to the hand. 931
27. Describe examples of splints used after surgery for Dupuytren’s contracture. 931
28. What are tests of maximal voluntary effort? 931
29. What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of whirlpool treatment versus direct application of heat, such as a hot pack or paraffin bath? 932
30. How can edema in the hand be measured? 932
31. How should the edematous hand be treated? 932
32. Define categories of splints used to gain joint motion. 932
33. Why is it important to start therapy early, even while still casted, for example? 932
Controversy 932
34. Describe a course of treatment of reflex sympathetic dystrophy (complex regional pain syndrome type I) 932
Bibliography 933
Section XII: The Wrist 935
Chapter 144: Anatomy of the Wrist 937
1. What is the normal blood supply pattern of the scaphoid? The capitate? The lunate? The hamate? 937
2. What is the normal percentage of force or load transmission through the ulnocarpal joint? 937
3. Describe the ligaments that interconnect the bones of the proximal carpal row. 937
4. How much of the proximal surface of the lunate normally articulates with the distal articular surface of the radius in the neutral wrist position? 937
5. What are the normal radiolunate and scapholunate angles as measured on a lateral radiograph? 938
6. How does the relative length of the radius and ulna, termed ulnar variance, change with forearm rotation? 938
7. The proximal carpal row moves in what general motion during wrist radial and ulnar deviation? During wrist flexion and extension? 939
8. Why is the radioscapholunate ligament no longer believed to be a significant mechanical stabilizer of the scaphoid and lunate? 939
9. What are the normal anteroposterior and lateral intrascaphoid angles? 939
10. Describe the normal arterial blood supply of the distal radius 939
11. Name the four principal ligaments of the first carpometacarpal joint. 940
12. Describe the anatomy of the triangular fibrocartilage complex 940
13. Where is the center of rotation of the wrist? 940
14. The midcarpal joint normally communicates with which carpometacarpal joints? 941
15. Is it normal for the radiocarpal joint to communicate with the pisotriquetral joint? With the distal radioulnar joint? 941
16. Are there any normal direct tendinous insertions to any of the carpal bones? 941
17. Is there normally substantial motion between the bones of the distal carpal row? 941
18. Is it normally possible for the lunate to articulate with the hamate? 941
19. Describe the dorsal capsular ligaments of the wrist. 941
20. What is carpal height ratio? How is it determined? 942
Bibliography 942
Chapter 145: Physical Examination of the Wrist 944
1. What constitutes the first part of every thorough physical examination? 944
2. Is it necessary to assess the range of motion of the wrist? 944
Radial Wrist Examination 944
3. Which carpal bone is involved in more than 95% of all cases of degenerative joint disease of the wrist? 944
4. Which aspect of the wrist, radial or ulnar, is involved in the majority of carpal pathology? 944
5. How many maneuvers does the radial wrist exam include? Name them. 944
6. Which maneuver directly examines the scapholunate joint? 944
7. Which maneuver indirectly examines the wrist with exceptional sensitivity? 945
8. Which maneuver specifically assesses synovitis of the scaphoid? 945
9. Which maneuver directly assesses the STT joint? 945
10. Which maneuver assesses the pathomechanics of the scaphoid? 946
11. How is the SSM performed? 946
12. Explain the biomechanical mechanism of the scaphoid shift maneuver 946
13. What is the clinical significance of the scaphoid shift maneuver? 947
14. What percentage of normal asymptomatic people have an abnormal scaphoid shift? 947
Ulnar Wrist Pain 947
15. How do you examine a patient with ulnar wrist pain? 947
16. How can you rule out pathology involving the DRUJ? 947
17. How can you diagnose a TFCC injury or tear on physical examination? 948
18. What is the ulnar snuffbox? 948
19. What is the lunotriquetral compression test? 948
20. What are ballottement tests? How can they assess LT instability? 948
21. What is triquetral impingement ligament tear? How can it be diagnosed? 948
Radiocarpal And Midcarpal Joints 949
22. How can instability of the radiocarpal or midcarpal joint be evaluated? 949
23. What is the pivot shift test? 949
Carpometacarpal Joint 949
24. Do all five carpometacarpal joints demonstrate equal motion? 949
25. Which is the most important of the CMC joints? 950
26. Degenerative joint disease most commonly involves which CMC joint? 950
27. What three tests are used to examine the first CMC joint? 950
28. What is the carpal boss? 950
29. How can you diagnose a carpal boss on examination? 950
Extraarticular Causes Of Wrist Pain 950
30. What is the Finkelstein test? 950
31. What is a “wet leather” sign? 950
32. How can you evaluate a problem involving the sheath of the ECU? 950
33. How can you diagnose a fracture or degenerative disease of the pisiform? 950
34. How can you diagnose an injury or fracture of the hook of the hamate? 950
35. How can you diagnose flexor carpi radialis tendinitis? 951
36. What is intersection syndrome? How can it be diagnosed on examination? 951
37. What are substitution maneuvers? 951
Bibliography 951
Chapter 146: Radiographic Examination of the Wrist 952
1. How should the standard posteroanterior roentgenogram for examination of the wrist be obtained? 952
2. What criteria identify an adequate PA view? 952
3. Why is it important to obtain adequate PA views of the wrist? 952
4. How should the standard lateral view of the wrist be obtained? 952
5. How can the lateral view be evaluated to see that the elbow was adducted to the patient’s side? 952
6. What does the scaphoid bone do on a PA view obtained in ulnar deviation? 952
7. What are the pronator quadratus and the scaphoid fat pads? What is their importance? 952
8. What is a Colles fracture? 952
9. How are Colles fractures classified? 954
10. How can ulnar styloid fractures be classified? 954
11. What is the importance of recognizing the various sites of ulnar styloid fractures? 954
12. What is a Smith fracture? 954
13. What is the definition of a Barton fracture? 954
14. What is a fracture of the radial styloid process called? 954
15. When a fracture line passes into the ulnar aspect of the scaphoid fossa or especially at the junction between the scaphoid and lunate fossae, what associated carpal abnormality should be questioned? 954
16. What is the fastest and most economical way to evaluate for scapholunate joint disruption? 954
17. What is the most frequently fractured carpal bone? 954
18. What are the complications of scaphoid fractures? 954
19. What is the difference between static instability and dynamic instability of the wrist? 955
20. Are carpal instability patterns always unstable? 955
21. What is rotary subluxation of the scaphoid? 955
22. Are all communicating defects or holes in the scapholunate ligament, as can be seen on arthrography, magnetic resonance imaging, magnetic resonance imaging arthrography, arthroscopy, or arthrotomy, believed to be symptomatic? 955
23. What are the two major types of carpal dislocations? 955
24. What is the role of CT in carpal trauma? 956
25. What are the advantages of magnetic resonance imaging for diagnosis of wrist disorders? 956
26. What are the most common indications for MR arthrography of the wrist rather than nonarthrographic MR of the wrist? 957
27. What are the three compartments of the wrist that have been most commonly injected for imaging? 957
28. Which of the three compartments listed in Question 27 is most commonly injected for wrist MR arthrography? 957
29. What is a potential pitfall with injecting only the radiocarpal joint? 957
Bibliography 957
Chapter 147: Biomechanics of the Wrist 959
1. Why are multiple carpal bones present in the wrist? 959
2. What is meant by the term kinematics? What is the difference between kinematics and kinetics? 959
3. From a kinematic standpoint, what is the difference between rotational and translational movements? 959
4. In what planes do the three basic wrist movements occur? 959
5. What is the normal range of motion of the wrist? 959
6. What is the functional range of motion of the wrist? 959
7. What is the physiologic motion of the wrist? 959
8. What is the columnar theory of carpal kinematics? 959
9. What is the row theory of carpal kinematics? 960
10. What is the ring theory of carpal kinematics? 960
11. What is the four-unit concept of carpal kinematics? 960
12. Which portion of the scapholunate interosseous ligament is strongest and most important for scapholunate stability? 960
13. Which are stronger, intrinsic carpal ligaments or extrinsic carpal ligaments? 960
14. What is force coupling? 960
15. How does rotary subluxation of the scaphoid affect carpal kinematics? 960
16. What is a DISI deformity? 961
17. What is a volarflexion intercalated segmental instability deformity? 961
Bibliography 961
Chapter 148: The Pediatric Wrist 962
1. By what gestational age does the carpus develop into eight distinct entities? 962
2. What is the carpal boss? 962
3. Describe the typical presentation of a carpal boss? 962
4. What constitutes a metacarpal stress test? 962
5. What is the etiology of a carpal boss? 962
6. How is a carpal boss treated? 962
7. What is the Madelung deformity? 962
8. With which syndrome is the Madelung deformity most associated? 962
9. Describe Leri-Weill syndrome. 962
10. What are the two forms of Madelung’s deformity? 963
11. What is the treatment of Madelung deformity? 963
12. What is most important to preserve in the wrist abnormality associated with cerebral palsy and arthrogryposis? 963
13. What is gymnast’s wrist? 963
14. Why does gymnast’s wrist develop? 963
15. What is “grip lock”? 963
16. Describe the stages and treatment of gymnast’s wrist. 963
17. What is the most common carpal bone fracture in the pediatric population? 963
18. How is the diagnosis complicated in children? 963
19. What is the scaphoid “fat stripe” sign? What is its significance? 963
20. What are the most common fractures in children? 963
21. What is a Galeazzi fracture? 964
22. What is a ganglion? 964
23. What are the etiology, location, and therapy for ganglia? 964
24. What is the most common connective tissue disorder in children? 964
25. Describe pauciarticular, polyarticular, and systemic-onset juvenile arthritis. 964
26. What are the most common initial and long-term manifestations of juvenile arthritis? 964
27. Describe the therapeutic options for juvenile arthritis. 964
Bibliography 964
Chapter 149: Fractures of the Carpal Bones 965
1. What is the relative incidence of carpal fractures? 965
2. What is the blood supply to the scaphoid? Why is it important ? 965
3. What is the typical presentation of a scaphoid fracture? 965
4. What is the anatomic snuffbox? 965
5. What radiographic views should be included in the initial workup of a scaphoid fracture? 965
6. What is an occult scaphoid fracture? 966
7. What is the navicular fat stripe sign? 966
8. What are the important classification systems of scaphoid fractures? 966
9. How does a scaphoid fracture contribute to wrist instability? 966
10. What are the essentials of closed treatment of scaphoid fractures? 966
11. What are the indications for operation on a fracture of the scaphoid? 966
12. What surgical options are available? 968
13. What differences are seen in pediatric scaphoid fractures? 968
14. Describe the surgical approaches to the scaphoid. 968
15. Can the scaphoid be fixed arthroscopically? 968
16. What is Kienböck’s disease? How is it related to fractures of the lunate? 968
17. What is the typical presentation and workup of a triquetral fracture? 968
18. How are pisiform fractures best diagnosed and treated? 968
19. What rare carpal fracture is associated with cyclists? 968
20. Which carpal fracture is associated with golf and racquet sports? 969
21. What is scaphocapitate syndrome? 969
22. How do scaphoid fractures contribute to wrist arthritis? 969
Bibliography 969
Chapter 150: Kienböck’s Disease 970
1. What is Kienböck’s disease? 970
2. What age-group and sex are most commonly affected? 970
3. What is the cause? 970
4. What is ulnar variance? 970
5. What is the significance of ulnar variance to Kienböck’s disease? 970
6. Does lunate vascular anatomy influence AVN? 970
7. What are the symptoms of Kienböck’s disease? 970
8. What are the physical findings? 970
9. What are the radiographic findings? 971
10. What features are found on magnetic resonance imaging? 971
11. What role does magnetic resonance imaging serve in managing Kienböck’s disease? 971
12. What is the differential diagnosis? 971
13. Can children develop Kienböck’s disease? 971
14. What are the clinical differences between Kienböck’s disease in adults and in children? 971
15. Is treatment the same for Kienböck’s disease in adults and in children? 971
16. What are the stages of Kienböck’s disease? 971
17. How are the various stages of Kienböck’s disease treated? 971
18. Does immobilization have a role in the treatment of Kienböck’s disease? 971
19. How about simply excising the lunate? 974
20. What about lunate excision arthroplasty? 974
21. Does altering ulnar variance affect revascularization? 974
22. Can a lunate be revascularized by direct vessel reimplantation? 974
23. When should intercarpal arthrodesis be considered? 974
24. Which intercarpal arthrodesis is most appropriate? 975
25. What salvage procedures are preformed for advance disease? 975
Controversies 975
26. Are radial wedge osteotomies (closing or opening) effective procedures for Kienböck’s disease? 975
27. How about vascularized radial bone grafts? 976
28. What procedure is best suited for patients with ulnar-positive variance? 976
Bibliography 976
Chapter 151: Carpal Dislocations and Instability 977
1. How do carpal dislocations typically occur? 977
2. How do patients with carpal dislocations typically present? 977
3. What is the difference between a perilunate dislocation and a lunate dislocation? 977
4. What is the “spilled teacup” sign? What does it signify? 977
5. Where is the space of Poirier, and why is it clinically important? 977
6. How can a dorsal perilunate dislocation be reduced? 977
7. What is the best method for treatment of an acute perilunate/lunate dislocation or fracture/dislocation? 978
8. Define lesser and greater arc injuries of the carpus. 978
9. Why are chauffeur’s or radial styloid fractures especially concerning? 978
10. Define the abbreviations CID, CIND, and CIC and describe their corresponding conditions. 978
11. What are Gilula arcs, and what do their disruptions indicate? 979
12. Explain the midcarpal shift test for midcarpal instability. 979
13. What is the role of arthroscopy in evaluating carpal instability? 979
14. What is a DISI deformity? A VISI deformity? 979
15. Which conditions can lead to dorsal intercalated instability? To volar intercalated instability? 979
16. What is the Watson test? 979
17. What is the signet ring sign? 980
18. Who was Terry Thomas? What is the significance of his name? 980
19. What is a normal scapholunate angle? When is a scapholunate angle considered pathologic? 980
20. Which radiographs help to make the diagnosis of scapholunate dissociation? 980
21. Differentiate between static and dynamic scapholunate dissociation. 980
22. What are the radiographic signs of scapholunate dissociation? 980
23. How are dorsal wrist ganglia associated with carpal instability? 980
24. What is a SLAC wrist, and what are its characteristics? 980
25. What are treatment options for chronic scapholunate instability? 980
26. Describe the typical history and examination of a patient with a lunotriquetral ligament tear. 980
27. Describe a shear or ballottement test of the lunotriquetral joint. 981
28. How can lunotriquetral instabilities be graded? 981
29. Briefly list the key intercarpal ligaments. 981
Bibliography 981
Chapter 152: Ulnar Wrist Pain 982
1. What five carpal bones make up the ulnar side of the wrist? 982
2. Name 10 possible entities to be considered in a broad differential diagnosis of ulnar-sided wrist pain? 982
3. What structure on the ulnar side of the wrist is frequently injured yet not seen on radiographs? 982
4. Tears of the TFCC are most frequently caused by what mechanism? 982
5. What intercarpal ligament is frequently injured along with the TFCC? 983
6. Ulnar wrist pain in the hypothenar eminence in golfers is commonly caused by what type of fracture? 983
7. What does tenderness to palpation over the pisiform bone often indicate? 983
8. What structure on the ulnar side of the wrist is prone to age-related changes? 983
9. What is ulnar variance? 983
10. What diagnostic tests help in differentiating causes of ulnar-sided wrist pain? 983
11. What technique has the best sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy for defining ulnar-sided wrist pain due to soft tissue injuries? 983
12. During arthroscopy, loss of what finding may indicate tearing of the peripheral TFCC? 983
13. What is the vascular anatomy of the TFCC? 983
14. What is the main form of treatment of central TFCC tears? 983
15. In patients who have undergone TFCC débridement but still have ulnar-sided wrist pain, what procedure can be used as an initial salvage procedure for relief of pain? 983
16. What procedure may be considered as an alternative to an ulnar shortening osteotomy to reduce TFCC loading in patients with minimal ulnar-plus variance? 984
17. What vascular anatomy can be associated with patients who use their hypothenar eminence as a hammer and have ulnar-sided wrist pain? 984
18. What physical tests are used to examine for lunotriquetral ligament tears? 984
19. What is the most common diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for lunotriquetral ligament tears? 984
20. Why do some authors advocate a four-corner fusion rather than a lunotriquetral fusion for documented lunotriquetral ligament tearing? 984
21. If pain is elicited by the lunotriquetral shear test, what other condition must be ruled out? 984
22. What are the two classes of TFCC tears, and how are they usually treated? 984
Bibliography 984
Chapter 153: Rheumatoid Arthritis of the Wrist 986
1. In patients with rheumatoid arthritis, how often is the wrist affected? 986
2. How does RA affect the wrist? 986
3. List the criteria necessary to make a diagnosis of RA. 986
4. What are rheumatoid nodules? 986
5. What is the utility of checking for serum rheumatoid factor? 986
6. What is RF? 986
7. What other laboratory values may be elevated in RA? 987
8. Is there any utility to checking wrist joint synovial fluid in RA? 987
9. Describe what a biopsy specimen of rheumatoid synovium might show. 987
10. What diagnostic imaging of the wrist should be obtained in RA? 987
11. What is a scallop sign? 987
12. Describe the classic pattern of deformity of the radiocarpal joint and DRUJ. 987
13. What are the other characteristic deformities in the rheumatoid hand? 988
14. What are the three major pathophysiologic factors in RA that result in joint destruction? 988
15. What is the natural course of rheumatoid disease in the wrist? 988
16. How does the pattern of wrist destruction in RA differ from that in an osteoarthritic scapholunate advanced collapse wrist? 988
17. How does tenosynovitis affect the wrist? 988
18. What are the treatment options for wrist synovitis? 988
19. What are the benefits of arthroscopic synovectomy? 988
20. What pharmacologic options exist for treatment of RA? 988
21. What is caput ulnae syndrome? 988
22. What is a piano keyboard sign? 989
23. Why is dorsal ulnar prominence at the wrist a problem? 989
24. What are the causes of tendon rupture in RA? 989
25. Which flexor tendons commonly rupture in RA of the wrist? 989
26. Which extensor tendons commonly rupture in RA of the wrist? 989
27. Why do patients with RA lose the ability to extend their fingers? 989
28. How can you determine the cause of loss of finger extension? 989
29. What are the surgical indications in RA of the wrist? 989
30. What should be done during preoperative evaluation of a patient with RA? 989
31. What are surgical options in managing DRUJ involvement in RA of the wrist? 989
32. What is the Darrach procedure? 990
33. Describe the Suave-Kapandji procedure. 990
34. What does resection hemiarthroplasty involve? 990
35. What is a distal ulna prosthesis reconstruction? 990
36. What are the surgical options for treating radiocarpal involvement in RA? 990
37. What are the indications for tenosynovectomy? 990
38. How can intraarticular wrist synovectomy be performed? 990
39. Describe the role of ulnar head resection. 990
40. Why isn’t wrist arthroplasty more popular in treating RA? 990
41. What are the types of wrist arthrodesis available in RA? 990
42. How effective is wrist arthrodesis? 991
43. Is there a role for midcarpal fusion in RA? 991
44. How should tendon ruptures be managed? 991
45. What can be done if both wrist and finger extensors have ruptured? 991
Bibliography 991
Chapter 154: Distal Radius Fractures 992
1. Do fractures of the distal radius occur in all age-groups? What are the common mechanisms of injury? 992
2. Is it correct to label all fractures of the distal radius as Colles fractures? 992
3. What are the commonly used eponyms to describe fractures of the distal radius? 992
4. What is the most comprehensive classification system used to classify fractures of the distal radius? 992
5. What are the other common wrist injuries associated with fractures of the distal radius? 993
6. What are the radiographic projections used in imaging a distal radius fracture? 993
7. What are some of the cardinal measurements on radiographs of a distal radius? 995
8. If plain radiographs of the wrist do not provide adequate information regarding the injury, what other investigations may be indicated? 996
9. What should be included in the initial clinical examination of a patient with a fractured distal radius? 996
10. What is the initial management of a displaced fracture of the distal radius? 996
11. How is a “hematoma block” performed for a closed reduction of a distal radius fracture? 996
12. How is a closed reduction of a distal radius fracture performed? 996
13. What is the management of undisplaced intraarticular and extraarticular stable fractures of the distal radius? 996
14. What are the features of the initial clinical assessment that indicate the need for surgical fixation of a distal radius fracture? 997
15. What are the radiographic features that indicate the need for surgical treatment? 997
16. What are some of the common forms of fixation of distal radius fractures? 997
17. Which fractures are suitable for percutaneous pin fixation? 997
18. How is percutaneous pin fixation performed? 998
19. Is plate fixation for distal radius fractures performed volarly or dorsally? 998
20. What are the common complications of distal radius fractures? 998
21. What are the characteristics of CRPS, and how is it treated? 998
Bibliography 999
Chapter 155: Limited Wrist Arthrodesis 1000
1. What is an intercarpal arthrodesis? 1000
2. Which wrist joints are responsible for flexion and extension? 1000
3. What is the functional range of wrist motion? 1000
4. Is wrist motion lost after intercarpal arthrodesis? If so, how does the loss compare with motion lost after a total wrist arthrodesis? 1000
5. What are the indications for an intercarpal arthrodesis? 1000
6. Why is it critical that unaffected intercarpal joints be left unfused? Are there any exceptions? 1000
7. Why must the normal external dimensions of the carpal bones included in a limited arthrodesis be preserved? Are there any exceptions? 1000
8. Why must pin fixation include only bones involved in the arthrodesis? 1001
9. Why is the scaphoid susceptible to degenerative arthritic change? 1001
10. What is a triscaphe arthrodesis? 1001
11. What is rotary subluxation of the scaphoid? How is it treated? 1001
12. How is a triscaphe arthrodesis performed? 1001
13. What is the key to performing a successful triscaphe arthrodesis? 1002
14. Are there any absolute contraindications to a triscaphe arthrodesis? 1003
15. What is SLAC wrist? 1003
16. Which conditions predispose to the development of SLAC wrist? 1004
17. Which joint in the wrist is virtually never involved in degenerative disease? Why not? 1004
18. How is SLAC wrist reconstruction performed? 1004
19. What is the key to performing a successful SLAC wrist reconstruction? 1004
20. Are there any absolute contraindications to SLAC wrist reconstruction? 1005
21. What are the most common patterns of degenerative disease of the wrist? 1005
22. What is a congenital carpal synchondrosis? Which intercarpal joint is most commonly involved? 1005
23. Why might a congenitally fused intercarpal joint require subsequent arthrodesis? 1005
24. What are the indications for limited wrist arthrodesis of the lunotriquetral joint? 1005
25. How is an LT arthrodesis performed? 1005
26. Which intercarpal arthrodesis results in the greatest loss of wrist motion? Which results in the least loss of motion? 1005
27. What is the optimal bone graft donor site for intercarpal arthrodesis? 1005
28. How is bone graft harvested from the distal radius? The identification of which structure is helpful during graft harvest? 1006
29. Can SL dissociation be treated with a SL limited wrist arthrodesis? 1006
30. Both scaphoid–capitate arthrodesis and triscaphe arthrodesis are used to treat scaphoid instability. How do the procedures differ biomechanically? 1006
31. What are the indications for a radiolunate arthrodesis in nonrheumatoid patients? 1006
32. What is an absolute contraindication to radiolunate arthrodesis? 1006
33. How is the wrist managed after intercarpal arthrodesis? 1006
34. What is the incidence of complications after intercarpal arthrodesis? 1007
Bibliography 1007
Index 1009